# A1

Subject:
IRQ's, COM's, ESD, I/O ADDRESSES, CONNECTORS, SAFETY

Q:
1. IF IRQ 2 IS USED WHAT OTHER IRQ CAN NOT BE USED ?
                 A. IRQ 1 
                 B. IRQ 12 
                 C. IRQ 3
                 D. IRQ 9


Q:
2. IN WHAT CONDITIONS ARE ESD MOST LIKELY ?
                 A. COLD AND DRY 
                 B. HOT AND WET 
                 C. TROPICAL
                 D. COOL AND WET


Q:
3. WHEN SHOULD YOU NEVER WEAR A GROUND STRAP?
                 A. INSTALLING A HARD DRIVE 
                 B. INSTALLING A MODEM 
                 C. WORKING ON A CRT 
                 D. INSTALLING NEW MEMORY


Q:
4. WHAT TWO PORTS USE IRQ5 AND 7 ?
                 A. COM2 AND COM4 
                 B. LPT3 AND LPT4 
                 C. COM1 AND COM3 
                 D. LPT1 AND LPT2


Q:
5.WHAT IS THE IRQ FOR COM1 AND 3 
                 A. IRQ 5 
                 B. IRQ 4 
                 C. IRQ 6
                 D. IRQ 3


Q:
6. WHAT IS THE I/O ADDRESS FOR COM 1?
                 A. 3F8h 
                 B. 3E8h
                 C. 2F8h
                 D. 2E8h


Q:
7. What is the I/O address for COM 3?
                 A. 3F8h 
                 B. 3E8h 
                 C. 2F8h 
                 D. 2E8h


Q:
8. Before you take the case off the computer: 
                 A. Unplug all cables
                 B. Turn the power on
                 C. Run the computer in safe mode
                 D. Turn the computer upside down


Q:
9. Before you do maintenance on a CRT: 
                 A. Disassemble the power button 
                 B. Discharge the CRT 
                 C. Charge the CRT
                 D. Set CMOS settings to maintenance


Q:
10. . What component holds a dangerous charge in a CRT? 
                 A. Transistor
                 B. Resistor
                 C. Capacitor
                 D. SIMM


Q:
11. WHAT IS THE STANDARD I/O FOR HARD DISK CONTROLLER? . 
           A. 3E8h
           B. 3F8h
           C. 2F8h
           D. 1F0h


Q:
12. What is the IRQ for the floppy drive controller? 
           A. IRQ 8
           B. IRQ 7
           C. IRQ 6
           D. IRQ 5


Q:
13. What is the I/O address for COM 4? 
           A. 2F8h
           B. 3F8h
           C. 3E8h
           D. 2E8h


Q:
14. What is the I/O for COM 2? 
           A. 2F8h 
           B. 2E8h
           C. 3E8h
           D. 3F8h


Q:
15. What IRQ is the LPT1 port set to use?
           A. 2
           B. 5
           C. 7
           D. 9


Q:
16. COM 3 will normally use which IRQ by default?
           A. 2
           B. 3
           C. 4
           D. 5


Q:
17 . A parallel port (LPT2) will have what type of connector?
           A. DB9
           B. DB25
           C. RJ45
           D. USB


Q:
18 .Which IRQ is typically assigned to an external modem?
           A. 4
           B. 5
           C. 3
           D. NONE


Q:
19. What device measures the amount of power being generated by a power supply?
           A. ESD STRAP
           B. Ohmmeter
           C. Multimeter
           D. Torx meter


Q:
20 . What IRQ is the LPT2 port set to use?
           A. 3
           B. 4
           C. 5
           D. 7


Q:
21 . What two ports use IRQ 5 and 7?
           A. COM1 and COM3
           B. COM2 and COM4
           C. LPT1 and LPT2
           D. LPT3 and LPT4


Q:
22. Where should static-sensitive components be stored when they're not being used?
           A. Paper container
           B. Styrofoam
           C. Plastic bag
           D. Anti-static bag


Q:
23. What is the danger when disassembling a CRT?
           A. The CRT is extreamly toxic
           B. The Capacitor can hold a strong electric charge
           C. It is only dangerous when plugged in
           D. It should be treated the same any device


Q:
24 How much data can a 3.5 inch double-density floppy disk hold?
           A. 320 KB
           B. 360 KB
           C. 720 KB
           D. 1.44 MB


Q:
25 .Which does not use a high powered concentrated light and will not pose a threat to the eyes?
           A. Laser Printer
           B. CD-ROM
           C. Optical mouse
           D. Scanner


Q:
26 . Which factor is not a cause of static electricity?
           A. Loose connections 
           B. Unshielded cables
           C. High humidity
           D. Ungrounded devices


Q:
27 .What is the interrupt request for the hard disk controller ?
           A. 11 
           B. 12
           C. 13
           D. 14


Q:
28 . What is the IRQ for COM1?
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 4


Q:
29 . What connector on a network card is associated with a 10BASE2 cable?
           A. RJ11 
           B. BNC 
           C. RJ45 
           D. DB25


Q:
30 . IRQ 0 is reserved for?
           A. Keyboard
           B. System timer
           C. LPT2
           D. Floppy drive


Q:
31 . IRQ 1 is reserved for? 
           A. System timer
           B. Keyboard
           C. LPT2
           D. VGA


Q:
32 . IRQ 2 is reserved for?
           A. LPT2
           B. COM3
           C. Cascade to IRQ9
           D. System timer


Q:
33 . IRQ 3 is reserved for?
           A. COM3
           B. System timer
           C. COM2
           D. VGA


Q:
34 . IRQ 4 is reserved for?
           A. COM1
           B. LPT2
           C. COM2
           D. System timer


Q:
35 . IRQ 5 is reserved for? 
           A. LPT1
           B. LPT2
           C. System timer
           D. VGA


Q:
36 . IRQ 7 is reserved for?
           A. LPT1
           B. COM3
           C. System timer
           D. VGA display


Q:
37 .How many bits in a byte? 
           A. 8
           B. 7
           C. 16
           D. 32


Q:
38 . A male DB-25 port is most likely a:
           A. Network port
           B. Serial port
           C. Parallel port
           D. Game port


Q:
39 .A typical fixed disk sector is how many bytes? 
           A. 500 
           B. 1024 
           C. 64 
           D. 512


Q:
40 . What type of connector is most likely found on a printer?
           A. DB-9
           B. Centronics 36
           C. DB-25 
           D. RJ45


Q:
41 . Which item should not be serviced?
           A. Hard disk
           B. Computer
           C. Keyboard
           D. Power supply


Q:
42 . What is the IRQ for COM 2?
           A. IRQ 2 
           B. IRQ 3 
           C. IRQ 4
           D. IRQ 5


Q:
43 . What is the default base memory address of LPT1 ?
           A. 278h 
           B. 2e8h
           C. 2f8h
           D. 378h


Q:
44. Which type of connector is used for a parallel connection on a printer? 
           A. 25-pin (DB-25) male
           B. 9-pin (DB-9) male
           C. 25-pin (DB-25) female
           D. Centronics (36-pin) D-Shell


Q:
45. RS-232 is a standard that applies to?
           A. parallel ports 
           B. serial ports 
           C. networks 
           D. frequencies


Q:
46 .Comm ports use what? 
           A. 15 pin female connector 
           B. 25 pin male connector
           C. parallel connector
           D. edge connector


Q:
47. A COM port is a _______ port.
           A. parallel
           B. serial
           C. scsi
           D. static


Q:
48. A CD-Rom drive always uses IRQ:
           A. 5
           B. 9
           C. 11
           D. depends on the adapter it's attached to


Q:
49. A sound card typically uses which IRQ?
           A. 1
           B. 5 
           C. 6
           D. 15


Q:
50 . What should you use to clean the plastic cover on your monitor or PC?
           A. alcohol
           B. lint-free cloth
           C. WD-40
           D. windex


Q:
51. Which of the following are input devices only? 
           A. mouse
           B. modem
           C. video card
           D. keyboard
           E. A,D


Q:
52 . Which component stores an electrical charge?
           A. capacitor
           B. reostat
           C. transistor 
           D. resistor


Q:
53 . The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct memory access) channel?
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 4


Q:
54. If COM2 and LPT1 are already being used, which of the following methods could be used to connect another printer? 
           A. Printers only use LPT1
           B. Install another printer card in the computer 
           C. Change the IRQ of COM2 
           D. Configure it as COM1


Q:
55. Which of the below connectors is normally used as a serial port on 
      personal computers? 
           A. Female DB9 
           B. Female DB25 
           C. Male DB9
           D. RJ-45


Q:
56.Which of the following can cause conflicts when you install add-on 
      cards in a personal computer? 
           A. ROM addresses 
           B. I/O addresses 
           C. DMA channels 
           D. All of the above


Q:
57 . The total length of your SCSI cables should not exceed ______. 
           A. 3 ft 
           B. 6 ft
           C. 18 ft
           D. 100 ft


Q:
58 . What is the small plastic connector called that is on the end of an 
      unshielded twisted pair wire?
           A. RJ-11 
           B. RJ-45 
           C. DB-9
           D. DB25


Q:
59. SCSI-2 Cables have how many pins?
           A. 64 
           B. 72 
           C. 50 
           D. 75


Q:
60. A ESD wrist grounding strap contains a:
           A. capacitor 
           B. resistor
           C. diode 
           D. transistor


Q:
61. What is the base memory address of LPT1 ?
           A. 278h 
           B. 2e7h
           C. 378h
           D. 2f8h


Q:
62 .What is the interrupt request for LPT 1? 
           A. IRQ 7
           B. IRQ 8
           C. IRQ 9
           D. IRQ 10


Q:
63. What is normally the interrupt request for LPT 2?. 
           A. IRQ 2
           B. IRQ 3
           C. IRQ 4
           D. IRQ 5


Q:
64. What should you use to discharge a CRT ?
           A. High voltage probe
           B. Logic probe
           C. Anti static wrist strap
           D. Grounding mat


Q:
65 . What ports are external modems usually connected to ?
           A. Serial port 
           B. Parallel port 
           C. LPT port
           D. SCSI port


Q:
66 . A parallel port sends and receives data how many bits at a time
           A. 1 
           B. 7 
           C. 8
           D. 16


Q:
67. You have a device using IRQ 9. Which IRQ can you not use as a result?
           A. IRQ 2
           B. IRQ 3
           C. IRQ 5
           D. IRQ 4


Q:
68 . What Interrupt request is redirected to IRQ 9?
           A. IRQ 5 
           B. IRQ 4
           C. IRQ 3
           D. IRQ 2


Q:
69. Serial ports send data how many bits at a time?
           A. 1 
           B. 8
           C. 16 
           D. 32


Q:
70. What uses a DIN-5 or PS2 connector?
           A. modem 
           B. monitor
           C. printer
           D. keyboard


Q:
71. What uses a 9 pin serial or PS2 connector?
           A. modem 
           B. mouse
           C. speaker
           D. monitor


Q:
72. Phone lines use what type of connector?
           A. RJ-45 
           B. RJ-11
           C. RJ-22
           D. RJ-15


Q:
73. Which provides the quickest data access time?
           A. ram
           B. IDE hard drive
           C. cd-rom drive
           D. SCSI hard drive


Q:
74. Comm ports use: (select all that apply)
           A. 9 pin male connector
           B. 15 pin female connector
           C. 25 pin male connector
           D. edge connector
           E. A,C


Q:
75 . Select all true statements:
           A. com1 and com3 share the same IRQ 
           B. com1 and com2 share the same IRQ
           C. com2 and com3 share the same IRQ
           D. com2 and com4share the same IRQ
           E. A,D


Q:
76 You have a serial scanner connected to your computer configured to use 
      com3. It is turned on. Your modem is using com1, and you can't dial out. 
      What is the most likely problem? 
           A. you have a conflict with IRQ 4 
           B. you have a loose connection
           C. you have an i/o conflict
           D. you have a conflict with IRQ 3


Q:
77 What ports external modems are usually connected to ??
           A. SCSI port 
           B. LPT port
           C. Parallel port
           D. Serial port


Q:
78 Whenever you have a hardware resource conflict, it will more likely be 
      an IRQ conflict rather than an i/o conflict because:?
           A. i/o addresses cannot conflict
           B. there are alot more i/o addresses than IRQs
           C. software tends to correct i/o conflicts
           D. the bios sometimes has more of a problem controlling IRQs


Q:
79 In addition to i/o port addresses, SCSI adapters also use a range of 
      rom addresses for their onboard bios?
           A. TRUE 
           B. FALSE


Q:
80 The CPU clock speed is measured in ?
           A. Seconds
           B. Megahertz 
           C. Milliseconds
           D. Ohms


Q:
81. A static jolt of as little of ____ volts can fry most any PC 
      integrated circuit ?
           A. 40 
           B. 200
           C. 500
           D. 1000


Q:
82. A human cannot feel a static discharge as high as ____ volts?
           A. 200 
           B. 1000
           C. 5000
           D. 10,000


Q:
83. ESD is ___________.?
           A. electrostatic discharge
           B. electric surge device
           C. electronic stasis device
           D. electronic system driver


Q:
84. On the PC side, the printer port is a: ?
           A. 25 pin female parallel connector 
           B. 15 pin female serial connector
           C. 15 pin female parallel connector
           D. 25 pin female serial connector


Q:
85 . The type of BIOS chip in which data can be erased by shining 
      ultraviolet light through the special window is called ?
           A. ROM BIOS
           B. PROM
           C. EPROM
           D. EEPROM


Q:
86 . If COM2 and LPT1 are already being used, which of the following 
      methods could be used to connect another printer ?
           A. Configure it as COM1 or LPT2
           B. Put in a SCSI card and connect a printer to it
           C. Use a switch box to connect the peripherals together


Q:
87. Which of the below connectors are normally used as serial ports on 
      personal computers? 
           A. maleDB9, male DB15
           B. male DB9, male DB25
           C. female DB5
           D. female DB15


Q:
88. Which of the following are you most likely to find on external SCSI 
      devices? 
           A. 2 male 50 pin Centronic connectors 
           B. 2 female 25 pin Centronic connectors
           C. 2 male 25 pin Centronic connectors
           D. 2 female 50 pin Centronic connectors


Q:
89 . What is the common ID number assigned to the host SCSI adapter in a 
      PC??
           A. 7
           B. 8
           C. 1
           D. 0


Q:
90. Select all that apply. When troubleshooting an expansion board, you 
      should take into consideration the possibility of conflicts in all of the 
      following except: ?
           A. I/O addresses
           B. DMA channels
           C. ROM addresses
           D. RAM addresses


Q:
91 . What is the best method of cleaning a dusty PC keyboard? ?
           A. Remove the bezel and blow out the dust. 
           B. Remove the bezel and vacuum out the dust
           C. Flush out the dust with a mild liquid detergent
           D. Wipe out the dust with a wet cloth


Q:
92. A customer has one printer on LPT1 and wants to add another printer. 
      To which port/s can it be connected? ?
           A. Game port 
           B. COM1 ,LPT2
           C. LPT2 , COM2
           D. COM2


Q:
93. An IRQ allows interface cards to: ?
           A. Interrupt the CPU to request service 
           B. Pass data to the CPU to be processed
           C. Pass data from one card to another
           D. Pass data to the computers memory


Q:
94. What is a 15-pin female connector used for ?
           A. VGA monitors
           B. printer
           C. mouse
           D. modem


Q:
95. When power is restored after a power outage, what should you do to 
      protect your system?
           A. Disconnect the CRT. 
           B. Unplug all power cords.
           C. Close all programs.
           D. Turn off the power.


Q:
96. Electrostatic discharge occurs when objects ?
           A. have dissimilar electric potential
           B. are removed from their protective bags
           C. are in a humid environmen
           D. are ungrounded


Q:
97 Digital multimeter is set for Ohm +20k scale. You will read ___ while 
      measuring a good 2 amp fuse.?
           A. 0.02
           B. 0.20
           C. 2.00
           D. 0.00


Q:
98 What device should never be connected to the uninterrupted power supply - "UPS"?
           A. A laptop computer
           B. A laser printer
           C. A monitor
           D. A desktop computer


Q:
99. You are testing a fuse with a multimeter. You set the multimeter to 
      10K scale. What should be a reading of a good 1A fuse?
           A. 0 
           B. 0.1
           C. 1.0
           D. Infinity


Q:
100 How much data can a 3.5 inch double-density floppy disk hold?
           A. 320 KB
           B. 360 KB
           C. 720 KB
           D. 1.44 MB


# A2

Q:
1. The memory addresses from 0 to 640KB are known as
                 A. conventional memory
                 B. expanded memory
                 C. high memory
                 D. common memory


Q:
2. The major advantage of using Flash ROM is
                 A. you can upgrade BIOS without replacing the chip
                 B. memory capacity is increased
                 C. you do not have to re-load the operating system
                 D. hard drives are protected


Q:
3. When an I/O device such as a serial port or modem is not enabled 
            during startup, what is the cause?
                 A. corrupted memory
                 B. failed BIOS
                 C. monitor burnout
                 D. lost clusters


Q:
4. What device uses a battery to keep settings when the computer is 
            turned off?
                 A. CMOS
                 B. Hard drive
                 C. RAM
                 D. ROM


Q:
5. You might flash the BIOS when?
                 A. adding peripherals
                 B. replacing memory
                 C. replacing the CPU
                 D. adding a video card


Q:
6 .Which provides the quickest access to data? 
                 A. ROM
                 B. IDE
                 C. SCSI
                 D. RAM


Q:
7 . What does TSR stand for?
                 A. Terminate and Stay Ready
                 B. Terminate and Stay Resident
                 C. Terminal Stays Ready
                 D. Testing System Ready


Q:
8 . A SIMM has how many pins?
                 A. 36
                 B. 30
                 C. 34
                 D. 40


Q:
9 . How much memory is conventional memory?
                 A. 640K
                 B. 1024k
                 C. 1204k
                 D. 512k


Q:
10 . What component would most likely cause a parity error?
                 A. ROM
                 B. controller
                 C. software
                 D. RAM


Q:
11 . What is considered firmware?
           A. DOS
           B. Windows
           C. Windows 95
           D. BIOS (ROM)


Q:
12 . Which computer system component is used for short- term data storage?
           A. Hard drive
           B. Floppy drive
           C. Tape drive
           D. RAM


Q:
13 . Nanoseconds are used to measure the speed of what computer system 
      component?
           A. CD-ROM
           B. Floppy drive
           C. Hard drive
           D. RAM


Q:
14 . Which type of RAM is normally the fastest?
           A. DRAM
           B. VRAM
           C. SRAM
           D. WRAM


Q:
15 . DRAM is best described by what statement?
           A. DRAM does not need refresh
           B. Continuously needs refresh
           C. DRAM is faster than SRAM
           D. DRAM is faster than WRAM


Q:
16 . What does the term "SIMMs" refer to?
           A. Standard RAM used on a computer
           B. Used for BIOS memory
           C. RAM used for virtual memory


Q:
17 . What action will enable more applications to run simultaneously?
           A. Add larger hard drive
           B. Increase size of Swapfile
           C. Add RAM
           D. Upgrade CPU


Q:
18 . Upper Memory blocks are located where ?
           A. Conventional Memory
           B. Extended Memory 
           C. Expanded memory 
           D. Reserved Memory


Q:
19 . Define HMA
           A. any memory above 590K
           B. any memory above 640K
           C. The first 64K of extended memory
           D. The first 64K of expanded memory


Q:
20 .One reason for an incorrect time/date setting could be 
           A. low power supply voltage
           B. low CMOS battery
           C. low disk space
           D. a bad UPS


Q:
21 . The following drive type parameters can be configured in CMOS EXCEPT
           A. tracks
           B. cylinders
           C. seek time
           D. number of heads


Q:
22 . What type of chip contains low level software for configuring the 
      system's capabilities with hardware?
           A.CPU 
           B. UART 
           C. SIMM 
           D. BIOS


Q:
23. What contains the computer BIOS and maintains its data with the use of 
      a battery for periods when the system is powered down?
           A. CMOS 
           B. RAM 
           C. DRAM 
           D. CPU


Q:
24. What are the first 64K of extended memory?
           A. Upper memory
           B. High memory area
           C. Conventional memory
           D. Expanded memory


Q:
25 . What memory is located between 640k and 1024K that is used to load 
      DOS drivers to allow applications more conventional memory?
           A. Expanded memory
           B. Extended memory
           C. Conventional memory
           D. Upper memory


Q:
26 . What memory is located above the first 1024K of memory?
           A. Conventional
           B. Extended
           C. Upper
           D. Expanded


Q:
27 .What memory is addressed in pages of 16k? 
           A. Expanded
           B. Extended
           C. Upper
           D. Conventional


Q:
28 . What type of ROM chip has a window that allows the chip to be erased 
      with an ultraviolet light?
           A. SROM
           B. PROM
           C. EPROM
           D. EEPROM


Q:
29. What type of ROM chip is erasable using software?
           A. SROM
           B. PROM
           C. EPROM
           D. EEPROM


Q:
30. Which DOS driver is used to manage extended memory?
           A. Mem386.sys 
           B. Himem.sys
           C. Ramdrive.sys
           D. EMM386.exe


Q:
31.Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded memory? 
           A. Himem.sys
           B. Mem386.sys
           C. Ramdrive.sys
           D. EMM386.exe


Q:
32 . What types of RAM needs to be refreshed at a regular rate?
           A. SRAM
           B. ROM
           C. EEPROM
           D. DRAM


Q:
33. Which type of memory would not be considered to be volatile memory?
           A. SRAM
           B. DRAM
           C. ROM
           D. None of the above


Q:
34 . The system BIOS and ROM chips are called:
           A. Software
           B. Firmware
           C. Hardware
           D. Bootware


Q:
35 . Checking the hard disk while running Windows 3.1, you discover a very 
      large file called 386SPART.PAR. what is this file?
           A. Windows permanent swap file
           B. Windows temporary swap file
           C. A temporary file created when installing Windows 3.1 
           D. A temporary file created when installing DOS


Q:
36 . You are looking at a memory module thought to be a DIMM module. How 
      many pins would be on a DIMM module?
           A. 16 pins
           B. 30 pins
           C. 76 pins
           D. 168 pins


Q:
37. Virtual memory refers to what process?
           A. The process of swapping data in and out of reserved memory
           B. Swapping memory from extended to expanded
           C. Using a file on the hard disk to simulate RAM
           D. Using extended memory to simulate expanded memory


Q:
38 . A parity error usually indicates a problem with:
           A. hard drive
           B. memory
           C. hard drive controller 
           D. i/o controller


Q:
39 . What's the size of the conventional memory?
           A. 640 KB
           B. 256 KB
           C. 1024 KB
           D. 1088 KB


Q:
40 . Soft memory errors are caused by____
           A. Bad Simm
           B. Short in circuit
           C. Random events


Q:
41. "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory.
           A. true 
           B. false


Q:
42 . If you get frequent general protection faults, this could indicate:
           A. A hard drive cable connected incorrectly
           B. Too much RAM is installed
           C. Poor quality of memory chips
           D. All of the above


Q:
43 . POST stands for:
           A. positive operating system test
           B. particle of static transfer
           C. power on self test
           D. printer online static test


Q:
44 . The POST is performed by
           A. The Rom Bios Chip
           B. The Basic Rom Chip
           C. The Disk operating system
           D. The RAM Chip


Q:
45 . ----- error code identifies a floppy drive problem
           A. 301 
           B. 401
           C. 501
           D. 601


Q:
46. A series 300 error is a problem with the ______.
           A. Keyboard
           B. Floppy drive
           C. Video
           D. Memory


Q:
47 . During boot-up, the memory test:
           A. Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed
           B. Displays what memory is installed, but nothing else
           C. Is an operational error
           D. Is a superfluous step that should be ignored


Q:
48 . During the boot process, a system first counts memory from where?
           A. Expansion memory board
           B. Cache 
           C. System board
           D. Video adapter


Q:
49 . The following process determines the amount of memory present, the 
      date/time, and which communications ports and display adapters are 
      installed in a microcomputer?
           A. Power on Self Test
           B. Start-up utility test
           C. Power up boot process
           D. Power on start up process


Q:
50 . In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for: 
           A. Basic Input Output System
           B. Basic Industry Operating System 
           C. Basic Intuitive Output Set
           D. Basic Input Organizational System


Q:
51 . What is a common complication when adding a 1.6G IDE hard drive to an 
      older system such as a 16 Mhz 80386 system? 
           A. The drive is too big for the available drive bays
           B. The old style IDE connector won't plug in properly
           C. The power supply may be sufficient
           D. System BIOS needs to be upgraded


Q:
52 . During the normal PC boot process, which of the following is active 
      first? 
           A. Hard disk information
           B. ROM BIOS
           C. CMOS
           D. RAM


Q:
53 . When SHADOWING is enabled in a computers BIOS:
           A. Instructions stored in various ROM chips are copied into extended 
      memory
           B. Values are stored twice in the memory for redundancy checking
           C. The conventional memory is re-mapped to the top of the extended 
      memory
           D. Data stored in RAM chips on adapter cards are shadowed into 
      extended memory


Q:
54 . What may you need to upgrade after installing a brand new IDE drive 
      on your old PC?
           A. new drive controller
           B. more Ram
           C. ROM BIOS
           D. new operating system


Q:
55 . You have an old PC that you decide to upgrade with a 1 gig IDE hard 
      drive. You find that you can't configure CMOS to see the entire hard 
      drive. The best you can do is 540 Meg. What is the fix? 
           A. use a device driver that makes the bios see the drive as simply a 
      block storage device, or upgrade the bios if possible
           B. put multiple partitions on the hard drive
           C. manually input the sectors, cylinders, and heads
           D. make the bios think it's a SCSI drive


Q:
56 . In CMOS setup, if you enable Shadowing, what happens?
           A. rom memory is minimized
           B. rom memory is maximized
           C. rom is copied to ram
           D. rom cannot be used by the bios


Q:
57 . Basic system configuration information is stored in
           A. Config.sys
           B. BIOS
           C. ROM
           D. CMOS


Q:
58 . If you enable ROM BIOS Shadowing in CMOS, what happens?
           A. ROM memory is minimized
           B. ROM is used in place of RAM
           C. A copy of the BIOS is placed in RAM


Q:
59 . A series 100 POST error code indicates a problem with the:
           A. hard drive
           B. ram or rom
           C. system board
           D. video adapter


Q:
60 . A series 200 POST error code indicates a problem with:
           A. hard drive
           B. ram or rom
           C. system board
           D. video adapter


Q:
61 . A series 400, 500, or 2400 POST error code indicates a problem with:
           A. hard drive
           B. ram or rom
           C. system board
           D. video adapter


Q:
62 . A series 1700 POST error code indicates a problem with:
           A. hard drive
           B. ram or rom
           C. system board
           D. video adapter


Q:
63 . In a DMA transfer, which component is responsible for controlling 
      data transfer?
           A. BIOS
           B. CPU
           C. PCI bus
           D. I/O device


Q:
64 . What type of DMA transfer will operate when a CPU is operating?
           A. multitasking
           B. burst mode
           C. DUAL mode
           D. cycle-stealing


Q:
65 . What type of software often uses the ROM BIOS?
           A. system
           B. application
           C. learning
           D. games


Q:
66 . What type of RAM "sockets" can be seen on motherboards? 
           A. 30 pin SIMM's
           B. 72 pin SIMM's
           C. 168 pin DIMM's
           D. all of the above


Q:
67 . If a bank of memory, on the motherboard, is full of SIMM/DIMM memory 
      it is called
           A. Populated
           B. Unpopulated
           C. Complete
           D. Banked


Q:
68 . Which of the following memory speeds is the fastest?
           A. 40ns
           B. 70ns
           C. 80ns
           D. 100ns


Q:
69 . This type of memory uses a clock to synchronize a memory chip's input 
      and output signal.
           A. Cache
           B. DIMM
           C. DRAM
           D. SRAM


Q:
70 . Primary and Secondary cache uses which type of memory?
           A. DIMM
           B. SIMM
           C. DRAM
           D. SRAM


Q:
71 . Memory integrated into the processor is:
           A. Main Memory
           B. Pipeline Cache
           C. Primary Cache
           D. Level 2 Cache


Q:
72 . How many 30-bit SIMMS are required to populate a bank on a 486 system 
      that has a 32-bit data bus?
           A. 2
           B. 3
           C. 4
           D. 5


Q:
73 . Device drivers loaded in the config.sys file is loaded into the 
      following memory area:
           A. Conventional Memory
           B. Upper Memory
           C. Extended Memory
           D. Expanded Memory


Q:
74 . Device drivers that are loaded in Windows 3.x are loaded into the 
      following file:
           A. Config.sys
           B. Registry
           C. System.ini
           D. Command.com


Q:
75 . Most manufacturers setup their BIOS to load into what area of memory 
      during the boot process.
           A. Conventional Memory
           B. First 640K of Memory
           C. Upper Memory
           D. Extended Memory


Q:
76 . This is a technique for transferring data from main memory to a 
      device without passing it through the CPU.
           A. Direct Memory Association
           B. Direct Memory Address
           C. Direct Memory Access
           D. Interrupt Request


Q:
77 . Select the devices below that would use DMA 
           A. Tape Drive
           B. Floppy Drive
           C. Sound Card
           D. all the above


# A3

Q:
1.What voltage does a 486 system use? 
                 A. + 6 volts 
                 B. + 5 volts
                 C. + 3.3 volts
                 D. + 12 volts


Q:
2. What voltage does a Pentium system use?
                 A. + 6 volts
                 B. + 5 volts
                 C. + 3.3 volts 
                 D. + 12 volts


Q:
3. Which bus connector socket has 124 pins with 132 MB throughput?
                 A. ISA
                 B. EISA
                 C. VESA 
                 D. PCI


Q:
4. What must you have to make a PCMCIA card work?
                 A. 19'' monitor
                 B. 512MB of RAM
                 C. 400MHz or faster
                 D. Software enabler


Q:
5. Which CPU is typically soldered to the system board?
                 A. 286
                 B. 386
                 C. 486
                 D. none


Q:
6 . MMX provided what? 
                 A. 57 fewer instructions
                 B. 57 more instructions
                 C. 100 new instructions
                 D. No new instructions


Q:
7 . Which system board can handle 8-bit, 16-bit and 32-bit I/O cards?
                 A. ISA
                 B. MCA
                 C. EISA
                 D. PCI


Q:
8 . Which type of bus is not proprietary, yet is also a 32-bit bus 
            that can support 64-bit multiplexed addresses?
                 A. ISA
                 B. EISA
                 C. MCA
                 D. PCI


Q:
9 . Which statement best describes how cache is integrated with all CPUs except the Pentium II?
                 A. L1 is external, L2 is internal
                 B. L1 is internal, L2 is external
                 C. L1 and L2 are internal
                 D. L1 and L2 are external


Q:
10 . The maximum temperature allowed for Intel processors is?
                 A. 185 degrees f
                 B. 90 degrees f
                 C. 220 degrees f
                 D. 250 degrees f


Q:
11 . Which processor included a built-on heat sink and fan as part of the CPU Single Edge Contact (SEC) cartridge?
           A. Pentium
           B. Pentium II
           C. Pentium MMX
           D. UNIVAC


Q:
12 . What is the difference between an AT and an ATX system board?
           A. ATX uses a different set of voltages
           B. ATX uses a P8 power connector
           C. The AT uses a 20-pin power connector
           D. ATX uses a P11 power connector


Q:
13 . PCMCIA card Type 1 is used primarily for what?
           A. Hard Drives
           B. Memory
           C. Modems


Q:
14. PCMCIA card Type 2 is used primarily for what?
           A. Hard Drives
           B. Memory
           C. Modems


Q:
15 . PCMCIA card Type 3 is used primarily for what?
           A. Hard Drives
           B. Memory
           C. Modems


Q:
16 . Which processor uses slot 7?
           A. Pentium Pro
           B. 486dx
           C. Pentium 
           D. Pentium II


Q:
17 . One of the major components of a PC is the Central Procesing Unit (CPU) which can be best described as: 
           A. The device that sends the bus signals telling it what to do. 
           B. The area that regulates all of the system power usage 
           C. The area where all the of the Basic input/output routines are stored 
           D. The area where all of the processing takes place


Q:
18 . A PC with a 486DX4 processor runs internally at 100Mhz. What speed would its external logic be running? 
           A. 10Mhz 
           B. 33Mhz 
           C. 66Mhz 
           D. 100 Mhz


Q:
19 . System board, planar board, and main logic board are all interchangeable terms with what?
           A. SIMM 
           B. RAM board
           C. Mother board
           D. Video board


Q:
20. What mother board uses and eight-bit datapath and is configured with manual jumpers and switches?
           A. AT 
           B. XT 
           C. LPX 
           D. ATX


Q:
21. What bus does not support 32-bit slots?
           A. AGP
           B. PCI
           C. EISA
           D. ISA


Q:
22. What processor has a disabled math coprocessor?
           A. 80386
           B. 80386SX
           C. 80486SX
           D. 80486DX


Q:
23 . What processor uses a slot 1 connection and a SEC cartridge?
           A. 80486DX
           B. Pentium
           C. Pentium Pro
           D. Pentium II


Q:
24 . What type of card can be hot-swapped?
           A. PCMCIA
           B. Video
           C. Modem
           D. Sound


Q:
25 . How thick is a Type III PCMCIA card?
           A. 3.3 mm
           B. 5 mm
           C. 10.5 mm
           D. 12.5 mm


Q:
26 . How thick is a Type II PCMCIA card?
           A. 3.3 mm
           B. 5 mm
           C. 10.5 mm
           D. 12.5 mm


Q:
27 . How thick is a Type 1 PCMCIA card?
           A. 3.3 mm
           B. 5 mm
           C. 10.5 mm
           D. 12.5 mm


Q:
29 . Before upgrading your operating system, you should first:
           A. backup your hard drive 
           B. run scandisk
           C. remove TSRs
           D. edit the startup files


Q:
30 . What type of interface has the fastest data transfer?
           A. Parallel 
           B. Serial
           C. DirectCPU Bus
           D. SCSI


Q:
31 . The CPU clock speed is measured in ?
           A. Seconds
           B. Megahertz
           C. Milliseconds
           D. Ohms


Q:
32 . What is a feature of EIDE?
           A. ATAPI
           B. Allows to have up to 8 devices in a chain
           C. High speed floppy drives
           D. Allows to perform low level formatting


Q:
33 . What area of memory is used for loading drivers and running programs ?
           A. Base memory
           B. Conventional memory
           C. Expanded memory
           D. Extended memory


Q:
34. What CPU introduced the concept of protected mode?
           A. 8086
           B. 80286
           C. 80386
           D. 80486


Q:
35 . What CPU was the first to have the ability to switch between the Real mode and Protected mode without restarting?
           A. 80286
           B. 80386
           C. 80486DX
           D. 80486SX


Q:
36 . In what 3 types of expansion slots can you plug an ISA card ?
           A. ISA, EISA, PCI
           B. ISA, EISA, MCA
           C. ISA, EISA, AGP
           D. ISA, EISA, Vlbus


Q:
37 . How many pins does IDE interface have?
           A. 34 
           B. 40 
           C. 50
           D. 68


Q:
38 . What type of motherboard supports a soft power switch?
           A. ATX 
           B. AT
           C. XT
           D. All the above


Q:
39 . What bus architecture is the fastest?
           A. MCA
           B. ISA
           C. VESA Local Bus
           D. PCI


Q:
40 . Which is both a 16 and 32 bit bus?
           A. ISA 
           B. EISA
           C. PCI 
           D. PowerPC


Q:
41 . IBM's Micro Channel Architecture (MCA) specifies which type of the following bit access widths?
           A. 8 bit & 16 bit
           B. 16 bit & 24 bit
           C. 16 bit & 32 bit
           D. 32 bit & 64 bit


Q:
42 . Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want maximum performance and future compatibility?
           A. ML 
           B. PCI 
           C. ISA 
           D. EISA


Q:
43 . A floppy drive cable has three connectors with a small twist in the cable between two of the connectors. How does the placement of the twist play a part in the connection of the cable to the system?

           A. The connector at one end of the cable that does not have a twist on it is connected to the drive to be used as drive A:.
           B. The connector at one end of the cable that does not have a twist on it is connected to the drive to be used as drive B:.
           C. The connector at one end of the cable that has a twist on it is connected to the drive to be used as drive A:. 
           D. The connector at one end of the cable that has a twist on it is connected to the drive to be used as drive B:.


Q:
44 . A numeric co-processor handles what function?
           A. POST 
           B. Counts RAM
           C. Data Processing
           D. Floating Point Calculations


Q:
45 . What does the CPU do? 
           A. Execute program instructions
           B. Perform math functions
           C. Control input/output operations
           D. All the above


Q:
46 . You get a call from a user complaining that his computer consistently locks up after only 5 minutes of operation. What is the possible cause?
           A. Track 0 bad
           B. Faulty power supply
           C. bad RAM 
           D. bad CPU fan


Q:
47. What types of Cache memory are available on a Pentium Pro CPU?
           A. L1
           B. L1, L2
           C. L1, L2, L3
           D. L1, L2, L3, L4


Q:
48 . The first CPU to come with a built-in co-processor is ________?
           A. 386DX
           B. 386SX
           C. 486DX
           D. 486SX


Q:
49 . Which processor uses slot 1?
           A. 386DX
           B. 486DX
           C. PENTIUM
           D. PENTIUM II


Q:
50 .A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally at 50 Mhz. What speed would its external logic be running? 
           A. 10 MHz
           B. 25 MHz
           C. 50 MHz
           D. 100 MHz


Q:
51 . The _____ chip uses a 64-bit data path. 
           A. 386DX 
           B. 486DX 
           C. 486SX 
           D. PENTIUM


Q:
52 . Memory buses are__________.
           A. unidirectional
           B. bidirectional


Q:
53 . Data buses are__________.
           A. unidirectional
           B. bidirectional


Q:
54 . How much memory can a 16 bit memory bus address?
           A. 32 MB
           B. 64 MB
           C. 128 MB
           D. 4 gigabytes


Q:
55 . How much memory can a 32 bit memory bus address?
           A. 32 MB
           B. 64 MB
           C. 128 MB
           D. 4 gigabytes


Q:
56 . These integrated circuits control the core functionality of the motherboard
           A. CPU
           B. DRAM Chips
           C. Video Chips
           D. Chipset


Q:
57 . MCA, EISA, ISA and PCI are
           A. Expansion slots
           B. Expansion buses
           C. External data buses
           D. Extended buses


Q:
58 . This is a feature supported by some bus architectures that enables a 
      controller connected to the bus to communicate directly with other devices 
      without going through the CPU.
           A. Direct Memory Access
           B. Direct Memory Access
           C. Interrupt Request
           D. Bus Mastering


Q:
59 . IBM referred to this expansion bus as the "PC Bus"
           A. PCI
           B. 8-BIT ISA
           C. 16-BIT ISA
           D. EISA


Q:
60 . Which IRQ in the list below has the "highest priority"?
           A. IRQ 3
           B. IRQ 4
           C. IRQ 8
           D. IRQ 9


Q:
61 . This expansion bus requires a reference disk and was designed to 
      replace the AT bus
           A. ISA
           B. EISA
           C. PCI
           D. MCA


Q:
62 . This expansion bus is the "mezzanine bus" 
           A. ISA
           B. EISA
           C. PCI
           D. MCA


Q:
63 . Which processor was the VL-bus designed to work with
           A. 286
           B. 386
           C. 486
           D. Pentium


Q:
64 . AGP is a single connector on the motherboard that provides performance boosts to what
           A. Processor
           B. Disk Drives
           C. Video
           D. ISA


# A4

Q:
1. Your customer's computer has two hard drives. Drive 1 is the C: 
            drive; drive 2 is the D: drive.Windows 95 and all applications are 
            installed on the C: drive. Drive D: is mostly free space. The 
            virtual memory settings are set to the default. How can you optimize 
            your customer's computer via virtual memory?
                 A. Virtual memory settings are best kept as default.
                 B. Move the virtual memory to the D: drive by copying the 
            virtual memory swap file 
                 C. Move the virtual memory swap file to the D: drive
                 D. Remove the virtual memory swap file, reboot, and let Windows 
            95 add the swap file automatically.


Q:
2. Your customer has a laptop computer with an 8-speed CD-ROM and 
            24MB of RAM. The optimize access pattern for CD-ROM is currently set 
            to "Quad-Speed or Higher." How can you make sure the CD-ROM file 
            system performance is optimized?
                 A. Change the setting to "No read ahead." 
                 B. Change the setting to "Full read ahead."
                 C. Change the setting to "16MB of RAM or higher."
                 D. Leave the setting as it is


Q:
3. Which statement is true regarding SCSI termination?
                 A. Only adapters must be terminated.
                 B. Both ends of the chain must be terminated.
                 C. No termination is necessary.
                 D. Only drives must be terminated.


Q:
4. Installing a floppy cable backwards will
                 A. cause the controller card to fail and require replacement
                 B. cause the system to lock up
                 C. destroy the floppy drive
                 D. render the drive inoperable but cause no damage


Q:
5. You have a system with one EIDE drive. You connect a second EIDE 
            drive to the same cable as the first drive, set it to slave, and 
            apply power. The original drive auto-detects, but not the new one. 
            What could be the problem? 
                 A. There is no power to the master drive.
                 B. The master drive has a separate "single drive" setting.
                 C. The CMOS is loose.
                 D. The LBA or E-CHS is not active.


Q:
6 . What is a group of sectors called?
                 A. cylinder
                 B. cluster
                 C. FAT
                 D. track


Q:
7 . You see the message "invalid media" after installing a new hard 
            drive. What do you do next?
                 A. Fdisk
                 B. Format.com
                 C. repartition
                 D. Add the OS


Q:
8 . A fragmented hard drive is one in which the files (CLUSTERS) are?
                 A. cross linked
                 B. missing
                 C. out of order
                 D. not contiguous


Q:
9 . You have a single hard drive with an extended partition and a 
            CD-ROM on the primary IDE controller and you decide to add a second 
            hard drive with an extended partition on the secondary IDE 
            controller. What is the drive letter of the primary partition of the 
            secondhard drive?
                 A. D:
                 B. E:
                 C. F:
                 D. G:


Q:
10 . When connecting two external SCSI hard drives to a computer, 
            where do you connect the second hard drive?
                 A. an open SCSI port on the host adapter
                 B. an open SCSI port on the computer
                 C. an open SCSI port on the first hard drive
                 D. serial post on the first host adapter


Q:
11 . When connecting a ribbon cable to a computer, how do you know which 
      direction to plug it in?
           A. The colored line in the cable goes to pin 0
           B. The colored line in the cable goes to the right of the connector
           C. The colored line in the cable goes to the highest pin number
           D. The colored line in the cable goes to pin 1


Q:
12 . SCSI connector has how many pins?
           A. 36
           B. 40
           C. 50
           D. 52


Q:
13 . You have two hard drives on the primary IDE controller and wish to 
      add a CD-ROM drive to the secondary IDE controller. How do you set the 
      jumpers on the CD-ROM?
           A. master of slave
           B. single drive
           C. slave
           D. no settings are necessary in this situation


Q:
14 . What is the name given to an IDE drive that does not use its own 
      controller card?
           A. Slave
           B. Master
           C. Primary
           D. Secondary


Q:
15 . How many devices can be connected together on a single channel of an 
      IDE controller card?
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 4
           D. 7


Q:
16 . Which of the following is a requirement for the last device connected 
      to a SCSI controller card? 
           A. It must have ID 6
           B. It must have ID 1
           C. It must be terminated
           D. It must not be terminated


Q:
17 . What should you use to clean a floppy disk?
           A. Cotton swabs
           B. Isopropyl alcohol
           C. Detergent
           D. Gasoline


Q:
18 . In the Binary numbering system, a (1) represents a jumper being 
      shorted and a (0) represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit jumper 
      block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID of logical 3 be set? 
           A. 100
           B. 010
           C. 011
           D. 101


Q:
19 . .What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three 
      position jumper block? 
           A. 4
           B. 6
           C. 7
           D. F


Q:
20 . How many devices can be used on a single SCSI bus? Keep in mind that 
      the SCSI host adapter counts as a device. 
           A. 7
           B. 8
           C. 9
           D. 18


Q:
21 . What is the common ID number assigned to the host SCSI adapter in a 
      PC?
           A. 0 
           B. 6
           C. 7
           D. 8


Q:
22 . The primary performance restraint for mass storage devices are: 
           A. Storage ability 
           B. Driver aceleration
           C. Disk Access Time
           D. Route mobility


Q:
23 . What is the maximum length a SCSI cable can support?
           A. 18 feet
           B. 25 feet
           C. 50 feet
           D. 60 feet


Q:
24. Most external SCSI devices have Centronics-50 or what other type of 
      connector?
           A. DB-25 female
           B. DB-9 female
           C. DB-9 male


Q:
25. What is the time it takes the head to reach the needed track?
           A. Access time
           B. Seek time
           C. Read time
           D. Latency period


Q:
26. What is the time that it takes the sector to move under the read-write 
      head?
           A. Access time
           B. Read time
           C. Latency period
           D. Seek time


Q:
27 . The overall time it takes a hard drive to find data.
           A. Seek time
           B. Access time
           C. Send time
           D. Latency period


Q:
28 . What program is used to set up partitions?
           A. FDISK
           B. SCANDISK
           C. CHKDISK
           D. DEFRAG


Q:
29. CD-Rom drives typically do not have which of the following interfaces?
           A. parallel
           B. ide
           C. serial
           D. scsi


Q:
30 . In a computer with an eide adapter, where should you connect an ATA 
      CD-Rom drive?
           A. on the floppy bus
           B. on the primary ide
           C. on the scsi bus
           D. on the secondary ide


Q:
31 . An exclamation point by the device in the device manager indicates 
      that?
           A. Device is removed
           B. Device has a problem
           C. Device is working properly
           D. Device was disabled


Q:
32. How many devices can connect to the typical SCSI adapter? 
           A. 7
           B. 8
           C. 9 
           D. 10


Q:
33 . IDE cables have how many pins? 
           A. 25 
           B. 40 
           C. 60 
           D. 100


Q:
34 . What is the maximum number of IDE drives that EIDE will support?
           A. 3
           B. 4
           C. 5
           D. 7


Q:
35. A CD-Rom drive always uses IRQ:
           A. 5
           B. 9
           C. 11
           D. depends on the adapter it's attached to


Q:
36 . The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct memory access) channel?
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 4


Q:
37 . You have an existing hard drive on your IDE adapter. You are 
      installing a second hard drive and want the first hard drive to still be 
      the bootable hard drive. How should you configure the second hard drive?
           A. slave
           B. master
           C. beta
           D. secondary


Q:
38 . You need to make a hard disk bootable but do not want to loose the 
      data on the drive. What command can you use to accomplish this?
           A. SYS
           B. FDISK
           C. FORMAT /S
           D. SCANDISK


Q:
39 . In order for a hard disk to be bootable it must have what type of 
      partition?
           A. Passive
           B. Active
           C. Large
           D. Symmetric


Q:
40 . All directory entries are stored where on the disk?
           A. File Directory
           B. File Assistance Tab 
           C. Root directory
           D. File Allocation Table


Q:
41 . When you are changing floppy disks in Windows 95, and you want to 
      update the directory on the screen press the ______key.
           A. F1 
           B. F5
           C. F10
           D. F11


Q:
42 . The power connector on a floppy drive is called a:
           A. molex connector
           B. BNC
           C. mini-molex
           D. berg connector


Q:
43 . Which of the following terms does not pertain to formatting a hard 
      drive?
           A. SETUP
           B. Physical
           C. Low-level
           D. DOS


Q:
44. What is the first step in configuring the hard disk drive?
           A. Partition the drive 
           B. Set the drive select jumpers
           C. Format DOS
           D. Physical format


Q:
45 . After configuring the hard disk, where is the subsequent DOS 
      partition located?
           A. Logical drive D
           B. Where the system files are stored
           C. Physical drive D
           D. The first partition in drive C


Q:
46 . What is it called when a hard drive writes a sector, skips one or 
      more sectors, and then writes another sector?
           A. Sectoring
           B. Sector skipping
           C. Interweaving
           D. Interleaving


Q:
47 . How do you write-protect a 3.5-inch disk?
           A. The write-protect hole must be covered
           B. The write-protect hole must be uncovered


Q:
48 . DIP switches are often used for configuration. Which of the following 
      terms is not used to describe the two possible settings of a DIP switch?
           A. OPEN or CLOSED
           B. ON or OFF
           C. A or B
           D. 1 or 0


Q:
49 . What type of PCMCIA slot does a hard drive card fit into?
           A. Type 1
           B. Type 2
           C. Type 3
           D. Type 4


Q:
50. Which RAID level provides for disk striping with parity?
           A. 0
           B. 1
           C. 4
           D. 5


Q:
51 . Data is written to the hard disk beginning at which track?
           A. Innermost
           B. Outermost
           C. A randomly selected track
           D. Whichever one the read head was on last


Q:
52. After you replaced a floppy drive, the light on the drive stays on and 
      it does not read floppies. What is the most likely problem?
           A. The new floppy drive is incompatible with the motherboard
           B. The floppy you installed was defective
           C. You forgot to connect a floppy cable
           D. The floppy cable was connected incorrectly


Q:
53 . After installing a new CD-ROM in your computer, data CDs work fine 
      but audio CDs don't seem to play sound. What is the most likely cause of 
      the problem?
           A. The CD-ROM is defective
           B. The CD drive needs to be cleaned
           C. The CD drive "audio out" cable is unplugged
           D. Computer CD-ROM drives do not play audio CDs


Q:
54 . Before uncompressing a hard drive, you should
           A. free up as much extended memory as possible
           B. run the DBLSPACE /FORMAT command to prepare the host drive for the 
      uncompressed files
           C. make sure the uncompressed files will fit on the host drive in 
      their uncompressed state
           D. Run Windows in Safe Mode


Q:
55. Your IDE CD-ROM drive is attached to the primary IDE adapter with your 
      hard drive. How should its jumpers be set?
           A. as a master
           B. as a slave
           C. auto detect


Q:
56. When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you must set the CD-ROM SCSI 
      adapter to: 
           A. The same address as the SCSI device before the CD-ROM 
           B. B0007 
           C. An unused SCSI address 
           D. SCSI ID=1


Q:
57 . What is the fastest way to make a bootable disk?
           A. Run DOS SETUP
           B. Install the DOS system disks
           C. Run FORMAT/S
           D. Run DISKCOPY


Q:
58. Which controller would support an external CD-ROM drive?
           A. ESDI 
           B. SCSI 
           C. MFM 
           D. ARLL


Q:
59 . What does ATAPI have to do with?
           A. modem
           B. power supply
           C. hard drive
           D. CD-ROM


Q:
60 . A 5 inch CD can store:
           A. 420 MB
           B. 650 MB
           C. 950 MB
           D. 1.2 GB


Q:
61 . The floppy drive light stays on when you power up the system. It 
      means that
           A. the CMOS setting set to 720 KB instead of 1.44 MB
           B. the disk inside is not bootable
           C. the FDD cable is reversed
           D. the FDD cable is not inserted


Q:
62 . When not in use, it is very important to keep 5 1/4 diskettes in       ______. 
           A. Their protective sleeves 
           B. In a plastic bag 
           C. On a shelf in an upright position 
           D. In the floppy drive


Q:
63. 3.5 HD floppy disks have how many square holes on top? 
           A. 0
           B. 1
           C. 2
           D. depends if they are formatted or not


Q:
64 . After displaying the directory of a floppy disk, a different floppy 
      is inserted into the drive. The contents of the original floppy's 
      directory still continue to be display regardless of a new directory 
      request on the other floppy placed in the drive. You remove the drive in 
      question and install it into your test system, and it does not exhibit the 
      problem. You should next replace the:
           A. Original IDE controller
           B. System's floppy drive device driver
           C. Floppy drive ribbon cable
           D. System's power supply


Q:
65 . What's the best way to protect your hard drive data?
           A. periodically defrag it
           B. run scandisk at least once a week
           C. periodically defrag it
           D. regular backups


Q:
66 . Which of the following is a type of preventative maintenance used on 
      a hard drive?
           A. Disk check diagnostics
           B. Head alignment diagnostics
           C. Initializing
           D. Uninstalling programs


Q:
67 . It is most important to keep hard drives and diskettes away from? 
      (choose two)
           A. Telephones
           B. Battery-operated devices
           C. Magnetic devices
           D. Temperature extremes
           E. C,D


Q:
68 . The acronym HDI stands for:
           A. Half duplex interface
           B. Hard disk interface
           C. Help desk interference
           D. Head to disk interference


Q:
69 . A hard disk is divided into tracks, which are further subdivided into
           A. clusters
           B. vectors 
           C. heads 
           D. sectors


Q:
70 . How may bytes in one Sector
           A. 64K
           B. 512
           C. 1024K
           D. 2048


Q:
71 . Which would you have to upgrade to install an EIDE drive?
           A. RAM BIOS
           B. Serial board
           C. ISA motherboard
           D. Controller board


Q:
72 . To install a second IDE drive into a computer, you must:
           A. Set the master-slave jumper to slave on the second drive 
           B. Use the IDE configuration software to set the new drive as slave
           C. Verify that you define the new drive as D: in the CMOS setup
           D. Verity that you attach the drive to the connector at the end of 
      the ribbon cable


Q:
73 . What specification covers PC cards?
           A. SCSI 
           B. MFM
           C. ISA 
           D. PCMCIA


Q:
74 . A Type III PCMCIA card is: 
           A. The same physical size as other PCMCIA cards but configured 
      differently
           B. The thinnest PCMCIA card, measuring 3.5 mm in thickness 
           C. The thickest PCMCIA card, measuring 10.5 mm in thickness 
           D. An old standard that is not compatible with the newest laptops


Q:
75 . Which type of PCMCIA card supports Hard Drives?
           A. Type I
           B. Type II
           C. Type III
           D. Type IV


Q:
76 . Where can PC card bus mastering be disabled?
           A. Config.sys
           B. Win.ini
           C. BIOS
           D. with jumpers


Q:
77 . A customer attached an external drive to his notebook computer but 
      the computer is not recognizing it. What should be considered? 
           A. The cables are attached firmly
           B. The external drive has been pre-loaded with the appropriate 
      software
           C. The external drive was attached before the computer was on
           D. The external drive is turned on
           E. All the above


Q:
78 . The acronym SCSI stands for ____.
           A. Small computer systems interface
           B. Super computer small interface
           C. System configured size interface
           D. Swift control software interupt


Q:
79 . In the Binary numbering system, a (1) represents a jumper being 
      shorted and a (0) represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit jumper 
      block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID of logical 5 be set?
           A. 100
           B. 010
           C. 011
           D. 101


Q:
80 . Which provides the fastest access to large video files?
           A. IDE hard drives
           B. EIDE hard drives
           C. SCSI hard drives
           D. Optical drives


Q:
81 . Which of the following statements is true?
           A. Two SCSI devices connected to a computer can have the same ID if 
      they are both hard drives.
           B. Each SCSI device must have its own ID 
           C. All SCSI devices must have the same ID 
           D. SCSI ID's are irrelevant


Q:
82 . Which of the following FRUs would be considered both an input/output 
      device?
           A. Video board
           B. SCSI host adapter
           C. System board CPU


Q:
83 . Your PC has 2 SCSI devices, an internal SCSI harddrive and an 
      external SCSI CD-Rom, which do you terminate?
           A. the SCSI adapter card and the harddrive
           B. the SCSI Harddrive
           C. the SCSI adapter 
           D. the SCSI harddrive and the CDRom


Q:
84 . Which type of interface provides for the fastest data transfer?
           A. IDE 
           B. SCSI
           C. parallel 
           D. serial 
           E. ISA


Q:
85 . The SCSI boot drive must be addressed as
           A. ID 0
           B. ID 1
           C. ID 2
           D. ID 3


Q:
86 . The binary address of the SCSI host adapter is
           A. 0111
           B. 1010
           C. 1100
           D. 1110


Q:
87 . Which of the following will NOT be a SCSI device?
           A. Hard Disk drive
           B. Floppy disk drive
           C. CD-ROM drive
           D. Tape Backup unit


Q:
88 . The terms "red book", "yellow book", and "orange book" refer to:
           A. floppy drive technology
           B. ide
           C. CD-Rom standards
           D. scsi


Q:
89 . CD-Roms are read by _________.
           A. magnetic heads
           B. electronic sensors
           C. laser diodes


Q:
90. Which of the following can cause CDs to be misread? 
           A. scratches
           B. slight melting
           C. finger prints
           D. smudges
           E. All of the above


Q:
91 . CD-Rom drives typically have which of the following interfaces? 
           A. parallel
           B. ide
           C. scsi
           D. All of the above


Q:
92 . CD-Rom drives have which connectors? 
           A. molex
           B. data cable
           C. audio cable
           D. All of the above


Q:
93 . In a computer with an eide adapter, where should you connect an ATA 
      CD-Rom drive?
           A. on the floppy bus
           B. on the scsi bus
           C. on the primary ide
           D. on the secondary ide


Q:
94 . What does MSCDEX.EXE do?
           A. configures hard drives
           B. bios setup
           C. it's a scsi driver
           D. it's a CD-Rom DOS driver


Q:
95 . If a computer's bios allows it, you can boot from a CD-Rom.
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
96 . A single speed CD-Rom drive transfers data at:
           A. 100 bytes per second
           B. 150 KBs per second
           C. 1 MB per second
           D. 512,000 bits per second


Q:
97 . Your CD-Rom audio cable connects to the:
           A. speaker
           B. hard drive
           C. bios
           D. sound card (or motherboard if sound is integrated with it)


Q:
98 . This statement is in autoexec.bat:
                c:\dos\cdrom\mscdex /d:cdrom001 /l:e /m:10 /v 

           This statement is in config.sys:
                device=c:\cdrom\atapicd.sys /d:cd001

           Your CD-Rom drive is not working. What is wrong?
           A. the device name is not the same in both files
           B. the "v" switch in autoexec.bat is invalid
           C. config.sys is not using the dos directory
           D. nothing, it should work


Q:
99 . IDE cables have how many pins?
           A. 25
           B. 40
           C. 50
           D. 72


Q:
100 . SCSI-2 cables have how many pins?
           A. 25
           B. 40
           C. 50
           D. 72


Q:
101 . Most SCSI-2 devices will work fine with SCSI-1 adapters.
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
102 . Which of the following are SCSI issues? 
           A. unique id settings
           B. limited cable length
           C. parity
           D. termination
           E. All of the above


Q:
103 . On some older SCSI adapters, the boot hard drive must be set to id#:
           A. 0
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 9


Q:
104 . What is the jumper setting on a SCSI device to configure it to use 
      the fourth SCSI id? Remember, SCSI ids start with zero.
           A. 010 
           B. 110
           C. 011
           D. 101


Q:
105 . Single-ended SCSI or "regular" SCSI has one wire for each signal 
      that needs to be sent along the SCSI bus. Differential SCSI has two wires 
      for each signal that is sent. Differential SCSI cable lengths can be up to 
      25 meters. How long can single-ended SCSI cables be?
           A. up to 3 meters
           B. up to 6 meters
           C. up to 14 meters
           D. up to 50 meters


Q:
106 . On a flat data cable, a red or blue stripe means:
           A. ground
           B. high voltage
           C. pin 1
           D. pin 34


Q:
107 . Your IDE hard drive is not spinning up when you turn on the PC. What 
      is the most likely problem.
           A. bad system board
           B. bad data cable
           C. incorrect jumper setting on drive
           D. loose molex connector


Q:
108 . On most floppy cables, the order for the connectors is:
           A. adapter, drive A, drive B
           B. adapter, drive B, drive A
           C. adapter, tape drive connector, drive A
           D. depends on cmos settings


Q:
109 . You've been using your tape drive about a year, performing daily 
      backups. Each day has its own tape (7 tapes total). Lately, you've been 
      having intermittent trouble and are having a difficult time determining 
      the problem because the errors do not always happen on the same day of the 
      week or at the same point in the backup process. You've cleaned the drive 
      and determined it to be fine. What might be the problem?
           A. The read/write head on the tape drive is wearing out
           B. The data cable between the tape drive and controller is failing
           C. There is a resource conflict between the tape drive and another 
      device in your system
           D. You need to replace your tapes


Q:
110 . The process known as___________ converts binary imformation into 
      patterns of magnetic flux on a hard disk's surface.
           A. encoding
           B. decoding
           C. fluxing
           D. warping


Q:
111. How many R/W heads are there for each platter in a hard drive?
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 4


Q:
112 . Round magnetic plate that makes up one of the components of the hard 
      drive
           A. Read/Write Head
           B. Cylinder
           C. Platter
           D. Track


Q:
113 . Read/Write Heads connect to this component in the hard drive.
           A. Cylinder
           B. Platter
           C. Stepper Motor
           D. Actuator


Q:
114 . Frequency Modulation (FM), Modified Frequency Modulation (MFM), and 
      Run Length Limited (RLL) are all type of:
           A. Hard Drives
           B. Encryption Schemes
           C. Platter Types
           D. Data Encoding Schemes


Q:
115 . This mechanism reads data from or writes data to a magnetic disk
           A. Head
           B. Track
           C. Sector
           D. Cylinder


Q:
116 . A set of all the tracks on all sides of all the platters located the 
      same distance from the center of the stack of platters
           A. Sector
           B. Cluster
           C. Track
           D. Cylinder


Q:
117 . What is the maximum number of logical drives you can have in a 
      computer.
           A. 8
           B. 16
           C. 24
           D. 36


Q:
118 . The maximum number of floppy drives you can have in your computer 
is.
           A. 1
           B. 2
           C. 3
           D. 4


Q:
119 . If you receive the following error message, "General Failure Reading 
      Drive A:", what should you suspect.
           A. Bad Data Cable
           B. Floppy Drive Controller
           C. Floppy Disk Drive
           D. CMOS


Q:
120 . Which wire on the floppy drive cable is called the "drive change 
      signal".
           A. 1st
           B. 2nd
           C. 21st
           D. 34th


# A5

Q:
1. How do you connect to a shared printer?
                 A. From the Printer folder double-click Add Printer and choose Network Printer.
                 B. From Control Panel select Add New Hardware and choose Network Printer.
                 C. From Explorer choose Connect to Network Printer.
                 D. From Control Panel choose Connect to Network Printer.


Q:
2. In a Windows 95 system, which tool will display the type of network card that is installed?
                 A. Internet
                 B. Explorer
                 C. File Manager
                 D. Device Manager


Q:
3. Which protocol does the Internet use?
                 A. NetBEUI
                 B. TCP/IP
                 C. IPX/SPX
                 D. DTC


Q:
4. External modems are usually connected to a(n)
                 A. serial port 
                 B. SCSI port
                 C. parallel port
                 D. LPT port


Q:
5. You need what to access resources on a network?
                 A. TCP/IP
                 B. file and printer sharing enabled
                 C. folder sharing enabled
                 D. proper permissions ( access rights )


Q:
6 . What is the hang up command?
                 A. ATHU
                 B. ATZ
                 C. ATH
                 D. ATX


Q:
7 . How do you dial a certain number such as 380-7112?
                 A. ATDT 3807112 
                 B. DIAL 3807112
                 C. ADD 3807112
                 D. ATD 3807112


Q:
8 . Thinnet is also known as which of the following?
                 A. 10BASE-T
                 B. 10BASE10
                 C. 10BASE5
                 D. 10BASE2


Q:
9 . Which IRQ is typically assigned to an external modem?
                 A. 3
                 B. 4
                 C. 5
                 D. None


Q:
10 . Which protocol cannot be used on the internet?
                 A. IPX
                 B. DNS
                 C. POP3
                 D. TCP


Q:
11 . What device separates computer network segments by their logical 
      network addresses?
           A. Gateway
           B. Bridge
           C. Repeater
           D. Router


Q:
12 . Which network topology is not used by a token-ring network?
           A. BUS
           B. Mesh
           C. Star
           D. Ring


Q:
13 . UART is a type of serial chip. Its letters stand for:
           A. unidirectional access regarding transmission
           B. universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter
           C. unable all restore t-bits
           D. Uninterruptable Asynchronous Receiver transmitter


Q:
14 . What does 10baseT mean?
           A. 10Mbps Broadband transmisson twisted pair wire
           B. 100Mbps Baseband transmisson twisted pair wire
           C. 10Mbps Baseband transmisson temporary pair wire
           D. 10Mbps Baseband transmisson twisted pair wire


Q:
15 . Which hardware component controls serial port communications? 
           A. ROM BIOS
           B. UART 15650
           C. DMA823
           D. UART 16550


Q:
16 . What modem command is used to answer?
           A. ATH
           B. ATA 
           C. ATD
           D. ATM


Q:
17. What type of PCMCIA card is used for modems and network cards.
           A. Type 1
           B. Type II
           C. Type III


Q:
18 . What cabling will not be a victim of electromagnetic interference?
           A. Twisted pair
           B. Coaxial
           C. Thicknet
           D. Fiber-optic


Q:
19 . What connects twisted-pair cables into a physical star topology?
           A. Router
           B. Hub
           C. MAU
           D. Repeater


Q:
20. What provides the fastest transfer rates?
           A. T1
           B. T3
           C. IDSN
           D. POTS


Q:
21. Before a modem transmits, it send a:
           A. RTS 
           B. DTR
           C. DSN
           D. RQS


Q:
22 . RTS stands for:
           A. request to send
           B. ready to start
           C. ready to switch
           D. request to scan


Q:
23 .Modems use ________________ transmission.
           A. synchronous
           B. asynchronous
           C. timed interval
           D. ata


Q:
24 . What connectivity device transmits packets the fastest ?
           A. bridge
           B. gateway
           C. router
           D. brouter


Q:
25 . What topology is the easiest to modify ?
           A. bus
           B. ring
           C. token
           D. star


Q:
26 . What is the term for two modems establishing communications with each 
      other:
           A. Interconnecting
           B. Connecting
           C. Pinging
           D. Handshaking


Q:
27 .The Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to resolve domain names to 
      ____________ that the computer is able to understand.
           A. NetBIOS names
           B. IP addresses
           C. WINS names
           D. Hardware addresses


Q:
28 . What is used to resolve a name such as comptia.com to an IP address?
           A. Domain Name Service
           B. Domain Resolving Protocol
           C. Domain Resolution Service
           D. Domain Name Resolution System


Q:
29 . To set up Windows 95 on a Microsoft network, what do you need to 
      purchase?
           A. A NIC and cabling
           B. Network software
           C. Windows NT Server 4.0
           D. All of the above


Q:
30 . You have a network card with only one connector, which looks like a 
      place to plug an oversized phone cord. What type of card is it?
           A. ethernet
           B. banyan
           C. token ring
           D. decnet


Q:
31 . Twisted-pair cable uses what type of connector?
           A. RJ-45 
           B. RJ-50 
           C. RJ-11
           D. RJ-12


Q:
32 . Thinnet coaxial cable uses what type of connector?
           A. BNC 
           B. RJ-45 
           C. RJ-11 
           D. MSAU


Q:
33 . Thicknet coaxial cable uses what type of connector?
           A. BNC
           B. AUI
           C. DIX
           D. RJ-45


Q:
34 . What is attenuation?
           A. loss of signal strength
           B. cable noise
           C. unwanted signals on the network
           D. analog interference


Q:
35 . What is used to boost a digital signal?
           A. repeater 
           B. booster
           C. amplifier
           D. multiplexer


Q:
36 . What is used to boost an analog signal?
           A. amplifier
           B. multiplexer
           C. booster
           D. demodulator


Q:
37 . What is the maximum length of twisted-pair cable before a signal 
      booster is needed?
           A. 1000 feet
           B. 150 meters
           C. 500 meters
           D. 328 feet


Q:
38 . What is the maximum length of thinnet cable before a signal booster 
      is needed?
           A. 500 feet
           B. 185 meters
           C. 1600 feet
           D. 1000 feet


Q:
39 . Which of the following communications parameters is NOT of concern 
      when you setup a modem?
           A. Parity
           B. Number of start bits
           C. Speed
           D. Number of stop bits


Q:
40 .You find a BNC "push-and-turn" connector on the back of personal 
      computers. What is it most likely used for?
           A. Serial port
           B. Parallel port
           C. SCSI port
           D. Connection to a network (LAN)


Q:
41 .Which network cable is good for high speed and long distances? 
           A. Shielded twisted pair
           B. Fiber optic
           C. Unshielded twisted pair
           D. None of the above


Q:
42 . An Ethernet network card can use: 
           A. unshielded twisted pair wire
           B. thin coax
           C. thick coax
           D. All of the above


Q:
43 . What does 10Base5 mean?
           A. 10 Mbps, broadband transmission,5 twisted pair wires
           B. 10 Mbps, baseband transmission, 50 meters max
           C. 10 Mbps, broadband transmission, 500 meters max
           D. 10 Mbps, baseband transmission, 500 meters max


Q:
44 . What is the connector called that is on the end of an unshielded 
      twisted pair wire?
           A. RJ-11
           B. RJ-12
           C. RJ-45
           D. RJ-52


Q:
45 . When is a null modem used?
           A. to exchange data between a DCE device and a DBE device
           B. to exchange data between 2 DTE devices
           C. to exchange data between 2 DCE devices
           D. to exchange data betwen 2 DBE devices


Q:
46 . In a peer to peer network, which one is true?
           A. Each computer can access every file on every other computer
           B. The file server provides data to every computer on the network
           C. Each computer acts like a client and a server
           D. Peer to peer networks are suitable for large organizations


Q:
47 .You need to install a NIC card in your PC. which type of NIC card will 
      offer better performance? 
           A. ISA 
           B. PCI 
           C. AGP 
           D. EISA


Q:
48 . A 10BaseT cable is normally connected to a computer with what type of 
      a connector?
           A. BNC connector
           B. T1 connector
           C. RJ-45 connector
           D. RJ-11 connector


Q:
49 . The IRQ for a PCI network interface card is NOT configured with ?
           A. Jumpers
           B. CMOS
           C. BIOS
           D. The operating system


Q:
50 . A modem converts data from
           A. Analog to serial
           B. Digital to analog
           C. Serial to parallel
           D. Analog to parallel


Q:
51 . What AT command would you use to reset a modem?
           A. ATD
           B. ATDH
           C. ATDT
           D. ATZ


Q:
52 . What would the modem command ATS0=0 accomplish?
           A. The modem will never answer
           B. The modem will answer on the first ring
           C. The modem will never dial out
           D. The modem will not dial pulse


Q:
53 . You successfully map a network drive in windows 95, but every time 
      you restart the computer, the drive seems to disappear. Why?
           A. The network computer was moved
           B. The network computer's shared directory was renamed
           C. You should add "lastdrive=Z" in config.sys file
           D. You should check "reconnect at login" check box


Q:
55 . On a leased line installation a known good external modem shows no 
      carrier detect light. Where is the problem most likely to be?
           A. In the modem
           B. In the phone line
           C. In the DTC equipment
           D. In the computer


Q:
56 . In order for a modem to accept data, which of the following signals 
      must be present? (choose all that apply)
           A. Data detect 
           B. Carrier detect
           C. Transmit message
           D. Receive data
           E. B,D


Q:
57 . What does Full Duplex mean?
           A. Simultaneous Transmit and Receive
           B. Transmit and Receive but not simultaneous
           C. Transmit for a set period then receive


Q:
58 . Your external modems RTS LED is lit what does this mean?
           A. Return to sender
           B. Run to serial
           C. Request to send
           D. run the sound


Q:
59 . The term Modem means.
           A. Modulator/Demodulator
           B. Modern Data Emulation
           C. Modern Data Emission Module
           D. Modular Data Emulator


Q:
60 . Your external modem fails to initialize. Check the________first?
           A. Phone line
           B. Serial cable
           C. Modem driver


Q:
61 . LAN stands for Local Analog Network
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
62 . A Token Ring can communicate in any direction.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
63 . _____is the slowest type of LAN.
           A. Token Ring
           B. Arcnet
           C. Ethernet


Q:
64 . Which cable type offers the most security?
           A. Coaxial
           B. Twisted pair
           C. Shielded twisted pair
           D. Fiber optic


Q:
65 . Which statement is not true about a repeater?
           A. It regenerates network signals so they can travel farther.
           B. They are primarily used in linear cable systems
           C. Every node on the network must have the same address
           D. All segments must have the same access address.


Q:
66 . A gateway can be a computer.
           A. True 
           B. False


Q:
67 . Which statement is not true statement about bridges?
           A. Some bridges can translate protocols
           B. A bridge can be used to split a network into two segments
           C. A bridge can not be used in an Arcnet LAN


Q:
68 . A router is more versatile than a bridge
           A. True 
           B. False


Q:
69 . An outside terminator is used with what cable? 
           A. TP
           B. STP
           C. Coaxial
           D. All of above


Q:
70 . In a peer-to-peer LAN a workstation can be a client and server
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
71 . To have a client-server LAN you must use _______?
           A. 2 computers and a printer 
           B. 3 computers.
           C. 2 computers


Q:
72 . Ethernet uses a________ topology?
           A. Star
           B. Bus
           C. Ring


Q:
73 . Token Ring uses a ________ topology? 
           A. Star
           B. Bus
           C. Ring


Q:
74 . Arcnet uses a________ topology? 
           A. Star
           B. Bus
           C. Ring


Q:
75 . Ethernet, Tokenring, and Arcnet are_____? 
           A. Topologies
           B. Buses
           C. Protocols


Q:
76 . What is not an example of a network? 
           A. LAN (Local Area Network)
           B. WAN (Wide Area Network)
           C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
           D. NAN (National Area Network)


Q:
77 . In modems that support more than 300 baud, baud and bps do not mean 
      the same thing.
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
78 . "bps" stands for bits per second. Baud is the number of discrete 
      signals per second. One discrete signal can encode more than one bit. 
      Hence, a 9600 bps modem actually operates at 2400 baud. 
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
79 . ISDN stands for:
           A. integrated services digital network
           B. internal select data networks
           C. inferior sector data network
           D. integrated sector direct next


Q:
80 . ISDN uses _______________ technology 
           A. only digital
           B. only analog
           C. neither digital nor analog
           D. digital and analog


Q:
81 . Your modem does not respond when you try to dial out. You try another 
      modem on another computer and get the same result. What is the most likely 
      problem?
           A. software bug
           B. defective modem
           C. defective computer
           D. bad phone line


Q:
82 . The layer of the OSI model whose most important role is to provide 
      error checking . 
           A. Session
           B. Presentation
           C. Application
           D. Transport


Q:
83 . This is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to 
      or "sense" the cable traffic, and send only when they hear that no one 
      else is transmitting;
           A. token passing
           B. demand priority
           C. CSMA/CD
           D. CSMA/CA


Q:
84 . This access method asks the other workstations for permission to 
      transmit before transmitting.
           A. token passing
           B. demand priority
           C. CSMA/CD
           D. CSMA/CA


Q:
85 . A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch 
      off of a central device called a _______. 
           A. hub 
           B. repeater
           C. router
           D. brouter


Q:
86 . This topology uses the least amount of cabling, but also covers the shortest amount of distance. 
           A. bus
           B. star
           C. mesh
           D. ring


Q:
87 . These devices can switch and route packets across multiple networks 
      and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best 
      destination.
           A. bridges
           B. gateways
           C. routers
           D. brouters


Q:
88 . This layer describes how the data gets over a physical medium. 
           A. Application
           B. Data link
           C. Physical
           D. Session


Q:
89 . Uses a thin baseband coaxial cable, bus topology, transmitting at 
      10Mbps, with a distance up to 185 meters.
           A. Token ring
           B. Ethernet 10Base2
           C. Ethernet 10Base5
           D. Ethernet 10BaseT


Q:
90 . This is a routable protocol used by Unix clients. 
           A. TCP/IP
           B. NetBEUI
           C. IPX
           D. XNS


Q:
91 . Which of the following is an important setting on a token-ring 
      network card that can effect the whole network?? 
           A. DMA channel
           B. IRQ
           C. transport protocol
           D. ring speed


Q:
92 . What component on a network card is responsible for signal conversion 
      between the PC and the network media? 
           A. Transponder
           B. Transceiver
           C. NIC Processor
           D. Media Access Control


Q:
93 . An FDDI network uses which method to control traffic? 
           A. CSMA/CD
           B. CSMA/CA
           C. Token Passing
           D. X.25


Q:
94 . Protocols such as TCP/IP and IPX/SPX operate at the _______ layer of 
      the OSI model. 
           A. Physical
           B. Network
           C. Transport
           D. Application


Q:
95 . Upon getting the no carrier message when using your modem, what can 
      you do? 
           A. Type ATM2Ll2
           B. Disable call waiting
           C. Change jumper settings on the modem 
           D. All of the above


Q:
96 . Which modems have UART chips? 
           A. Voice capable modems
           B. Data/Fax Modems
           C. Win Modems
           D. UARTs are not used with modems


Q:
97 . What type of modem can only send data? 
           A. simplex 
           B. half-duplex 
           C. full-duplex
           D. modulator


Q:
98 . What low speed modulation actually uses a separate frequency to represent ones and zeros? 
           A. shift-keying 
           B. dual-line
           C. frequency modulation
           D. differential phase-shifting


Q:
99 . SMTP is a protocol used for what purpose on the Internet?
           A. WWW access
           B. Management
           C. E-Mail
           D. File transfers


Q:
100 . What type of files are the basis for Web pages? 
           A. .exe files
           B. .com files
           C. .dll files
           D. .html files


Q:
101 . What utility would you use to view who is accessing shared resources 
      on your WIN 95 machine?
           A. System Monitor
           B. Net Watcher
           C. System Agent


Q:
102 . Which of the following is not internet related?
           A. POP3
           B. FTP
           C. X.400
           D. HTML


Q:
103 . Dial up server is a feature that is built into Win 95.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
104 . In a peer to peer network, a work station can be a client and 
server.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
105 . Which type of environment uses a dedicated server of some kind?
           A. Peer to Peer
           B. IBM SNA
           C. Client Server
           D. Gateway


Q:
106 . WIN 95 supports what kind of networking by default?
           A. Peer to Peer
           B. Client Server
           C. Domain
           D. WAN


Q:
107 . It is possible for WIN 95 to keep a modem log.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
108 . Which statement best describes the differences between synchronous and asynchronous transmissions?
           A. Asynchronous transmissions send data bits with an accompanying 
      clock pulse. Synchronous transmissions send data bits without an 
      accompanying clock pulse.
           B. Synchronous transmissions send data bits with an accompanying 
      clock pulse. Asynchronous transmissions send data bits without an 
      accompanying clock pulse


Q:
109 . What is the purpose of a parity bit when used in data 
communications?
           A. To be used by the receiving system as an error checking mechanism.
           B. To boost the data signal being sent.
           C. To keep the data signal being sent the correct polarity.


Q:
110 . What is the primary function of an UART ?
           A. To provide a buffer for the CPU.
           B. To provide serial to parallel conversions.
           C. They provide synchronous transmissions.
           D. To handle the serial interface of a computer bus.


# A6

Q:
1. Before you do maintenance on a CRT:
                 A. Discharge the CRT
                 B. Disassemble the power button 
                 C. Set CMOS settings to maintenance
                 D. Charge the CRT


Q:
2. What component holds a dangerous charge in a CRT?
                 A. Transistor
                 B. Capacitor
                 C. Resistor
                 D. SIMM


Q:
3. Which would use a .26 DOT standard to identify what type of 
            component it is?
                 A. Monitor
                 B. CD-ROM
                 C. Hard drive
                 D. Keyboard


Q:
4. Can a monochrome monitor be attached to an SVGA adapter card?
                 A. Yes
                 B. Yes, with a monochrome driver
                 C. Yes, only with the proper connector
                 D. No


Q:
5. Which cannot be reused?
                 A. Components attached to a worn system board
                 B. Ink-jet cartridge
                 C. Toner cartridge
                 D. CRT tube


Q:
6 . Which step should you perform first before discharging a CRT?
                 A. Remove the CRT from its housing
                 B. Disconnect the CRT from the computer 
                 C. Remove the video assembly 
                 D. Turn power off before removing power source


Q:
7. .What tool would you use to properly discharge the CRT ? 
                 A. Insulated pliers
                 B. DVM
                 C. Logic probe
                 D. High voltage probe


Q:
8 . .The monitor power LED is 'on' but the monitor screen is 
            completely dark. The least likely cause of the problem is: 
                 A. Defective monitor 
                 B. Disconnected video cable 
                 C. Defect in the computers video circuitry 
                 D. System RAM problem


Q:
9 . Which is the most difficult environmentally to dispose of?
                 A. CRTs
                 B. floppy drives
                 C. hard drives
                 D. power supplies


Q:
10. What should you use to clean the plastic cover on your monitor 
            or PC?
                 A. alcohol
                 B. lint-free cloth
                 C. WD-40
                 D. gasoline


Q:
11 . What is the standard resolution of the VGA adapter?
           A. 480X640 16 colors
           B. 320X480 16 colors
           C. 600X800 16 colors
           D. 640X480 65,536 colors


Q:
12 . What is the standard resolution of the SVGA adapter?
           A. 600X800 256 colors
           B. 640X480 65,536 colors
           C. 480X640 16 colors
           D. 1024X768 16 colors


Q:
13 . How long should you wait for the CRT to discharge before opening the 
      case?
           A. A few seconds 
           B. A few minutes 
           C. 30 minutes 
           D. 60 minutes or more


Q:
14 . If your monitor has random dots in it the problem most likely resides 
      in:
           A. Monitor
           B. Video Card
           C. Software
           D. Interrupt Level


Q:
15 . What would you ask to determine if the display is working?
           A. Is there a video cursor or action on the screen?
           B. Did the computer beep or chime?
           C. Is there high voltage static on the screen
           D. Is the brightness or contrast turned up or down?
           E. All of the above


Q:
16 . Color Monitors use ___ Electron Guns
           A. 2
           B. 3
           C. 4
           D. 6


Q:
17 . Which components could cause a blank screen?
           A. Power supply
           B. Video card
           C. CPU
           D. RAM
           E. All of the above


Q:
18 . A customer calls and says that his monitor light is on but he has no 
      display. His PC apparently seems to boot OK and is running. What is the 
      first thing you would do?
           A. Check the power cord
           B. Reseat the video card
           C. Discharge the CRT
           D. Check the monitor controls


Q:
19 . Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor?
           A. Check its connections to the computer and power source
           B. Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity
           C. Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the problem


Q:
20 . A monitor's CRT can pack quite a wallop of a charge even if it's been 
      turned off for several days or more. Before you service a monitor, you 
      must discharge the CRT using a tool specific for that purpose. Before you 
      do the discharge, what must you do first?
           A. make sure the monitor is not connected to a PC
           B. make sure the monitor is unplugged
           C. make sure the monitor is turned off
           D. make sure your life insurance policy is paid up


Q:
21 . You have a PC with no video. Which of the following is LEAST likely 
      to be causing the problem?
           A. crashed hard drive
           B. defective ram (bank zero)
           C. loose video card
           D. low AC outlet power


Q:
22 . Your customer calls with a "wobbly video display" What do you 
      recommend that they try to do to fix it?
           A. Replace the Monitor
           B. Discharge the CRT
           C. Replace the Monitor cable and power supply
           D. Relocate electronic devices that might be near the monitor


Q:
23 . Which monitor would provide the highest level of performance?
           A. CGA
           B. VGA
           C. SVGA
           D. XGA


Q:
24 . What component of a monitor is responsible for illuminating the 
      flourescent surface of the display tube? 
           A. Plasma gun
           B. Proton gun
           C. Laser gun
           D. Electron gun


Q:
25 . What type of monitor produces a non-flickering image on the screen?
           A. Interlaced
           B. Non-interlaced
           C. Interweaved
           D. Non-interweaved


Q:
26 . To support a video resolution of 1024x768 pixels at 65,000 colors, 
      you would need a video card with at least __MB of video RAM.
           A. 1
           B. 2 
           C. 4
           D. 8


# A7

Q:
1. What is the first step to safely service a laser unit?
                 A. Unplug the unit.
                 B. Check the paper feed.
                 C. Check for power.
                 D. Check the paper feed.


Q:
2. What part of a laser printer cannot stand to be exposed to light?
                 A. drum
                 B. fuser assembly
                 C. light scanner
                 D. cleaner blade


Q:
3. What part of a laser printer cannot cause a paper jam?
                 A. scanner
                 B. cleaner blade
                 C. fuser assembly
                 D. drum


Q:
4. On a dot matrix printer, you should never lubricate which part?
                 A. printhead pins
                 B. paper advance bearings
                 C. carriage bearings
                 D. carriage rails


Q:
5. What part of a Dot matrix printer can burn you?
                 A. Deflection plates
                 B. Fuser
                 C. Ribbon head
                 D. Pin head


Q:
6 . What happens during the transfer phase of a laser printer?
                 A. Charge is transfered from the paper
                 B. Image is written to the drum
                 C. Image is transfered to the paper
                 D. Charge is transfered to the drum


Q:
7 . What does the primary corona do in a laser printer?
                 A. Charges the toner
                 B. Charges the developing drum
                 C. Bleeds charge from paper
                 D. Puts -600v charge on OPC drum


Q:
8 . What happens during the writing phase of the laser printer?
                 A. Image is written to the corona
                 B. Image is written to OPC drum
                 C. Image is written to the paper
                 D. Image is placed on the developer


Q:
9. What is the typical pin configuration for a Dot matrix printer?
                 A. 9/24
                 B. 8/12
                 C. 9/18
                 D. 9/12


Q:
10 . What is the first step in Laser printing?
                 A. Conditioning
                 B. Cleaning
                 C. Charging
                 D. Fusing


Q:
11. What type of printer can be used to print multipart forms?
           A. Laser
           B. Ink-jet
           C. Bubble-jet
           D. Dot-Matrix


Q:
12. Where does an inkjet printer move the printhead to keep the ink from drying?
           A. Nozzle zone 
           B. Safe zone 
           C. Maintenance area
           D. Tune area


Q:
13 . During what phase of the laser printing process does the corona wire put a -600 volt charge on the drum?
           A. Conditioning 
           B. Developing
           C. Writing
           D. Cleaning


Q:
14. During what phase of the laser printing process does the toner melt onto the paper?
           A. Fusing
           B. Cleaning
           C. Writing
           D. Developing


Q:
15 . What phase of the laser printing process follows the conditioning phase?
           A. Cleaning
           B. Writing
           C. Developing
           D. Fusing


Q:
16 . The transfer corona uses a/an ______ charge to attract the toner to the paper.
           A. negative
           B. alternating
           C. magnetic
           D. positive


Q:
17 . During the fusing process, toner is:
           A. dry pressed into the paper
           B. electrically bonded to the paper
           C. melted into the paper
           D. glued to the paper


Q:
18. On the PC side, the printer port is a:
           A. 25 pin female serial connector
           B. 25 pin female parallel connector
           C. 25 pin male serial connector
           D. 15 pin female serial connector


Q:
19 . How do you connect to a shared printer?
           A. From the Printer folder double-click Add Printer and choose Network Printer
           B. From Explorer choose Connect to Network Printer
           C. From Control Panel choose Connect to Network Printer.
           D. From Control Panel select Add New Hardware and choose Network Printer.


Q:
20 . The print from a dot-matrix printer is sometimes light, sometimes dark. This is most likely caused by:
           A. paper not advancing properly
           B. worn ribbon
           C. defective printhead
           D. defective carriage assembly


Q:
21 . The process that laser printers use to produce a printed image is called ?
           A. Electro Photographic
           B. Laser photographic
           C. Laserwriting


Q:
22 . In EP print process what voltage is used in the transfer corona to charge the paper?
           A. -600 Volts
           B. +600 Volts
           C. -6000 Volts
           D. +6000 Volts


Q:
23 . Which component is responsible for moving the ink from the drum onto the paper in the EP print process?
           A. The primary corona
           B. The OPC drum
           C. The laser beam
           D. The transfer corona


Q:
24 . What voltage is used to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?
           A. -600 Vdc
           B. +600 Vdc
           C. -6000 Vdc
           D. +6000 Vdc


Q:
25 . What special type of paper is the most susceptible to environmental hazards?
           A. Thermal Paper
           B. Laser printer paper
           C. Fast-drying inkjet paper
           D. Thermal hot wax slicks


Q:
26 . Your laser printer is on, you hear the fan running, but it won't print. What is the first thing you should check?
           A. that all the cables are connected securely
           B. that the correct print driver is installed
           C. that the printer is not jammed
           D. that the printer is online


Q:
27 . During the laser printer's conditioning phase a uniform charge of _______ is placed on the photosensitive drum.
           A. +600 volts
           B. -600 volts
           C. -100 volts
           D. +100 volts


Q:
28 . In order to place this charge on the drum, the primary corona wire must emit a charge of:
           A. +6000 volts
           B. -6000 volts
           C. +1000 volts
           D. -1000 volts


Q:
29 . Your laser printer gives you an error code 50. This is usually caused by a defective:
           A. high voltage power supply
           B. formatter board
           C. laser unit
           D. fuser assembly


Q:
30 . An important first step in troubleshooting which component in a laser printer is causing a jam is to:
           A. look up error codes
           B. remove the jammed paper
           C. turn the printer off, then on again
           D. note where in the paper path the paper stops


Q:
31 . Select the best choice for cleaning laser toner from clothing:
           A. clean cloth with cool water
           B. warm soapy water
           C. pure dishwashing detergent
           D. dry clean


Q:
32 . Your client gets garbage characters when trying to print a document.  Which of the questions listed below could you ask? 
           A. Do you have a sample? 
           B. What applications are being used? 
           C. Where is the printer located? 
           D. Occurrence (how often)? 
           E. All of the above


Q:
33 . Most modern printers connect to the serial port.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
34 . A thermal printer uses a special paper and heat to produce an image.
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
35 . With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print is most commonly caused by:
           A. Erratic paper advancement
           B. Erratic ribbon advancement
           C. Misalligned print head
           D. Overheating print head


Q:
36 . If the output on a dot-matrix printer fades from the left to the  right, you probably need to adjust the ?
           A. Platen
           B. Printhead
           C. Roller
           D. Feed Mechanism


Q:
37 . When printing with a Dot Matrix Printer, the test is not even darker in some places than others. What is the expected problem?
           A. Bent platen
           B. Worn print wires
           C. Bad ribbon


Q:
38 . What action will correct patchy, faint, uneven or intermittent print on a dot matrix printer? 
           A. Replacing the timing belt
           B. Adjusting the paper feed tension
           C. Adjusting the tractor feed tension
           D. Replacing the ribbon


Q:
39 . On a dot matrix printer the letters are beginning to fade. You_____
           A. Clean Platen
           B. Tighten head
           C. Change Ribbon
           D. Checks hard drive for lost clusters


Q:
40 . What does an Inkjet printer use to guide the flow of ink droplets?
           A. High pressure air.
           B. Heat
           C. Electrically charged metal plates


Q:
41 . It isn't a good idea to reuse a ink jet cartridge because_____?
           A. It will void the printer warrantee
           B. The ink isn't as good
           C. With a new cartridge you are also replacing the jets


Q:
42 . After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty print. Which of  the following would correct the problem. Choose the BEST answer. 
           A. Run several blank pages
           B. Reset the printer
           C. Clean the laser diode
           D. Clean the developer tank


Q:
43 . What is the purpose of a Thermal Fuse?
           A. In case the low voltage power supply overheats
           B. In case the High voltage power supply overheats
           C. To guard against the Fusing roller over heating


Q:
44 . Which component must be vacuumed or replaced during preventative maintenance on a laser printer?
           A. Scanning mirror 
           B. Toner cartridge
           C. Ozone filter
           D. EP Drum


Q:
45 . To prevent toner from sticking to a laser printer's heat rollers,  apply which of the following:
           A. Alcohol
           B. Oil
           C. Ammonia
           D. soapy water


Q:
46 . The coating on the drum of a laser printer is_____?
           A. Rubber
           B. Never exposed to light
           C. Light sensitive


Q:
47 . The fusing unit of a laser printer uses____and_____ to bond the image to the paper.
           A. Heat, Pressure
           B. Heat, Positive charge
           C. Heat, Negative charge


Q:
48 . The transfer corona wire in a laser printer has a strong______ charge
           A. positive 
           B. negaitve


Q:
49 .Which laser printer component formats the print job ?
           A. printer controller circuitry
           B. corona assembly
           C. formatter software


Q:
50 . Using paper that is to coarse in a laser printer can________
           A. Void warrantee
           B. Cause the print to be lighter than normal
           C. Cause premature wear to the paper path


Q:
51 . The first five steps of EP process happen in the toner cartridge
           A. True
           B. False


Q:
52 . Toner particles have a ____ charge
           A. positive
           B. negative


Q:
53 . The developing step of EP is_______
           A. After the transferring step
           B. The laser creates a latent image
           C. When positively charged toner is attracted to the drum
           D. None of the above


Q:
54 . Which is the easiest component to enviromentally recycle? 
           A. Motherboards 
           B. Toner cartridges 
           C. Cathode ray tubes
           D. CMOS batteries


Q:
55 .How is the paper fed along in an ink jet printer?
           A. tractor
           B. timing belt
           C. arm
           D. platen


Q:
56 . Which of the following are page descriptive languages?
           A. Page Descriptive Language
           B. PostScript
           C. PageScript
           D. Printer Control Language
           E. B,D


Q:
57 . If the stactic-elimminator strip is absent or broken in a laser printer what will happen ?
           A. Nothing, printer will function normally
           B. Paper jam may occur becuse the paper may curl around the photosensitive drum
           C. Printer will not print at all


# A8

Q:
1. Before you take the case off the computer: 
                 A. Unplug all cables
                 B. Turn the power on
                 C. Run the computer in safe mode
                 D. Turn the computer upside down


Q:
2 . A parallel port (LPT2) will have what type of connector?
                 A. DB9-F
                 B. DB25-M
                 C. RJ-45
                 D. USB


Q:
3 . What connector on a network card is associated with a 10BASE2 
            cable?
                 A. RJ11 
                 B. BNC 
                 C. RJ45 
                 D. DB25


Q:
4 . A male DB-25 port is most likely a:
                 A. Network port
                 B. Serial port
                 C. Parallel port
                 D. Game port


Q:
5 . What type of connector is most likely found on a printer?
                 A. DB-9
                 B. Centronics 36
                 C. DB-25 
                 D. RJ45


Q:
6. Which of the following is a parallel port connector? 
                 A. 25 pin male 
                 B. 25 pin female
                 C. BNC
                 D. RJ-11


Q:
7. RS-232 is a standard that applies to?
                 A. parallel ports 
                 B. serial ports 
                 C. networks 
                 D. frequencies


Q:
8 . Comm ports use what? 
                 A. 15 pin female connector 
                 B. 25 pin male connector
                 C. parallel connector
                 D. edge connector


Q:
9. Which of the below connectors is normally used as a serial port on personal computers? 
                 A. Female DB9 
                 B. Female DB25 
                 C. Male DB9
                 D. Male DB25
                 E. C,D


Q:
10 . The total length of your SCSI cables should not exceed ______. 
                 A. 3 ft 
                 B. 6 ft
                 C. 18 ft
                 D. 100 ft


Q:
11. On the PC side, the printer port is a:
           A. 25 pin female serial connector
           B. 25 pin female parallel connector
           C. 25 pin male serial connector
           D. 15 pin female serial connector


Q:
12 . A parallel port sends and receives data how many bits at a time?
           A. 1 
           B. 4
           C. 8
           D. 16


Q:
13 . A serial port sends and receives data how many bits at a time?
           A. 1
           B. 4
           C. 8
           D. 16


Q:
14. What port uses a 25 pin male or 9 pin male D connector?
           A. Parallel
           B. Serial
           C. Modem
           D. BNC


Q:
15. What uses a DIN-5 or PS2 connector?
           A. Modem 
           B. Monitor
           C. Printer
           D. Keyboard


Q:
16. What uses a 9 pin serial or PS2 connector?
           A. Modem
           B. Monitor
           C. Mouse
           D. Speaker


Q:
17 . What card will have a 15-pin female DB connector with 3 rows of pins?
           A. Network
           B. Modem
           C. Memory
           D. Video


Q:
18 . What is the maximum recommended length of a serial cable?
           A. 50 feet
           B. 75 feet
           C. 50 yards
           D. 75 yards


Q:
19 . Phone lines use what type of connector?
           A. RJ-15
           B. RJ-11
           C. RJ-45
           D. RJ-21


Q:
20. Twisted pair cables use what type of connector?
           A. RJ-11 
           B. RJ-45
           C. RJ-15
           D. RJ-21


Q:
21 . A red or blue stripe on a ribbon cable indicates what?
           A. Pin 1 
           B. Pin 2 
           C. Pin 35 
           D. Pin36


Q:
22 . SCSI-2 Cables have how many pins?
           A. 50 
           B. 64 
           C. 72 
           D. 75


Q:
23 . Twisted-pair cable uses what type of connector?
           A. RJ-45 
           B. RJ-11 
           C. BNC 
           D. RJ-50


Q:
24. Thinnet coaxial cable uses what type of connector?
           A. RJ-45
           B. RJ-11
           C. BNC
           D. AUI


Q:
25 . Thick Ethernet cable uses what type of connector?
           A. RJ-11 
           B. RJ-45
           C. BNC
           D. AUI


Q:
26 . What is the maximum length of twisted-pair cable before a signal booster is needed?
           A. 100 feet
           B. 100 meters
           C. 500 feet
           D. 500 meters


Q:
27 . What is the maximum length of thinnet cable before a signal booster is needed?
           A. 185 feet 
           B. 185 meters 
           C. 1500 feet 
           D. 1500 meters


Q:
28 . The power connector on a floppy drive is called a:
           A. molex connector
           B. mini-molex
           C. berg connector
           D. BNC


Q:
29 . Which is not a SCSI connector?
           A. DB25
           B. Centronics 50 pin
           C. Centronics 68 pin
           D. RJ45


Q:
30 . Which of the below connectors are normally used as serial ports on 
      personal computers?
           A. maleDB9, male DB15
           B. male DB9, male DB25
           C. female DB25
           D. female DB15


Q:
31 . Which of the following are you most likely to find on external SCSI 
      devices?
           A. 2 male 50 pin Centronic connectors
           B. 2 female 25 pin Centronic connectors
           C. 2 male 25 pin Centronic connectors
           D. 2 female 50 pin Centronic connectors


Q:
32 . What kind of cable is used to prevent EMI
           A. fiber optic
           B. UTP
           C. co-axial
           D. STP


Q:
33 . What type of cable can not be used for connecting computers into a 
      network?
           A. UTP cat 5
           B. SCSI cable
           C. Serial cable
           D. Parallel cable


Q:
34 . When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector, how do you know which direction to plug it in? 
           A. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1 
           B. The blue or red line in the cable goes away from the power connector
           C. The red line in the cable goes to the highest pin number
           D. It does not matter


Q:
35 . SVGA monitor cables have _____ pins.
           A. 9
           B. 10
           C. 12
           D. 15


Q:
36 . A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:
           A. Serial port 
           B. parallel port
           C. Docking
           D. COM2 port


Q:
37 . What type of port is a Centronics port associated with?
           A. parallel
           B. serial
           C. RS-232
           D. game


Q:
38. Although a parallel port has many pins only a few are used for data transfers. How many pins are used ?
           A. 1
           B. 4
           C. 8
           D. 9


Q:
39 . Which pins on a parallel port are used for data transfers?
           A. Pins 2-9
           B. Pins 9-25
           C. Pins 2,3,4
           D. Pin 1, 25


Q:
40. Which pin in a serial port is used to signal a device that it is ready to receive data? 
           A. 4
           B. 3
           C. 2
           D. 1


# A9

Q:
1. COMMAND.COM contains which type of DOS commands?
                 A. standard mode
                 B. real mode
                 C. external
                 D. internal


Q:
2. What is one way to recover from the error message "No operating system found" when starting Windows 95?
                 A. Insert the Windows 95 CD-ROM and use the FORMAT C: /F command.
                 B. Reboot on a floppy with system files and use the SYS C:  command
                 C. Insert a CD-ROM with the system files and run the SYS  command.
                 D. Reboot on a floppy with system files and use the FORMAT C: /F command.


Q:
3. During a Windows 3.x boot process, the error "Bad or Missing HIMEM.SYS" is displayed. This means HIMEM.SYS is not loaded in
                 A. WIN.INI
                 B. AUTOEXEC.BAT
                 C. SYSTEM.INI
                 D. CONFIG.SYS


Q:
4. In order to modify the Registry, which tool must first be used?
                 A. REGEDIT
                 B. FDISK
                 C. REGMOD
                 D. DEFRAG


Q:
5. POST instructions are stored where?
                 A. ROM 
                 B. CMOS
                 C. RAM
                 D. system battery


Q:
6 . If you type DIR in DOS and the directory from the previous floppy disk comes up, and you try again but it does not change, what  must you do? 
                 A. replace the floppy cable 
                 B. throw away the bad floppy disk
                 C. press reset
                 D. reboot


Q:
7 . What is initialized first on start up?
                 A. ROM BIOS
                 B. Floppy drive
                 C. RAM
                 D. Hard drive


Q:
8 . Safe mode loads which files?
                 A. Keyboard, SVGA driver, Mouse
                 B. Keyboard, VGA driver, sound card
                 C. Keyboard, Mouse, VGA driver
                 D. Everything except video drivers


Q:
9 . HIMEM.SYS in Windows 95 is corrupted. What will happen during bootup?
                 A. You must use FDISK
                 B. An error message will prompt you to install a copy of HIMEM.SYS
                 C. Windows will not load
                 D. The computer will load Windows 95 and then go to a DOS prompt


Q:
10 . DOS=HIGH does what?
                 A. loads DOS into Extended Memory
                 B. loads DOS into Expanded Memory
                 C. loads DOS into Upper Memory Blocks
                 D. loads part of DOS into High Memory Area


Q:
11 . What are the minimum files you need to put on a boot disk?
           A. IOS.SYS, MSDOS.SYS. COMMAND.COM
           B. IOS.SYS, MSDOS.SYS, COMMAND.COM, FDISK
           C. IOS.SYS, MSDOS.SYS, COMMAND.COM, CONFIG.SYS
           D. IOS.SYS, MSDOS.SYS, COMMAND.COM, SHARE.EXE


Q:
12 . What files does Win95 use to determine why a setup failed when the hardware was being detected?
           A. NETLOG.TXT
           B. SETUP.EXE
           C. SETUPLOG.TXT
           D. DETCRASH.LOG


Q:
13 . Which file extension refers to the registry files?
           A. .DAT
           B. .DA0
           C. .BIN
           D. .BAT


Q:
14 . The SYS command on MS-DOS 6.x copies what?
           A. IO.SYS, MS.DOS, AUTOEXEC.BAT, AND CONFIG.SYS
           B. IO.SYS, MS.DOS , CONFIG.SYS, AND COMMAND.COM
           C. IO.SYS, MS.DOS, COMMAND.COM, AND FDISK
           D. IO.SYS, MS.DOS, COMMAND.COM, AND DRVSPACE.BIN


Q:
15 . You install DOS, but your CD-ROM won't play. What file do you need to add to access the CD-ROM?
           A. put MSCDEX.EXE in the autoexec.bat file
           B. put MSCDEX.EXE in the config.sys file
           C. put MCDEX.EXE in the autoexec.bat file
           D. put MCDEX.EXE in the config.sys file


Q:
16. Which file is a valid filename in Win95?
           A. my.files.doc
           B. readme*.txt
           C. ?giant.doc
           D. ??install.exe


Q:
17 . . What is the batch file interpreter for the Autoexec.bat file?
           A. Command. sys
           B. Command.exe
           C. Command.bin
           D. Command.com


Q:
18. Which protocol is used on the Internet for file downloads?
           A. DNS
           B. x.400
           C. FTP
           D. HTTP


Q:
19 . After upgrading to a newer DOS version, what could you use to make dos report that it is using the older DOS version?
           A. use the VER command
           B. reinstall the older DOS version
           C. put the older DOS application in a subdirectory
           D. use the SETVER command


Q:
20 . Using the MSD.EXE cannot be used for; 
           A. applications
           B. hard drive 
           C. operating system
           D. memory


Q:
21. What is the kernel responsible for?. 
           A. maintaining directory services
           B. managing virtual memory, task scheduling, and file I/O services
           C. managing the FAT
           D. configuring hardware devices


Q:
22 . If you are booting the computer what key do you press to boot directly to Safe Mode?
           A. F3 
           B. F4
           C. F5
           D. F8


Q:
23 . Which file, when missing, will not let you boot to DOS?
           A. Command.com
           B. Command.exe
           C. Config.sys
           D. Autoexec.bat


Q:
24 . Where does DOS look for system files to boot the computer?
           A. in the primary active partition
           B. in the primary extended partition
           C. in the secondary active partition
           D. in the secondary extended partition


Q:
25 . What will not increase the speed of your computer?
           A. scandisk
           B. defrag
           C. add RAM
           D. Mem


Q:
26 . How many files can you put in the root directory of DOS?
           A. 100
           B. 255
           C. 512
           D. 1024


Q:
27. What file is PATH= in?
           A. Config.sys
           B. IO.SYS
           C. MSDOS.SYS
           D. Autoexec.bat


Q:
28. Which file is not a core file for Win 95?
           A. Krnl386.exe
           B. Msdos.sys
           C. Gui.exe
           D. Io.sys


Q:
29 . Name the Core files used in Dos
           A. Io.sys, Msdos.sys, Config.sys
           B. Msdos.sys, Command.Com, Io.sys 
           C. Msdos.sys, Autoexec.bat, Config.sys
           D. Io.sys, Command.com, Config.sys


Q:
30 . Where are the external Dos commands located?
           A. root directory
           B. dos directory
           C. windows/system directory


Q:
31 . What is the name of the permanent swap file in Win.311?
           A. 286PAR.PAR
           B. win386.swp
           C. 386PAR.PAR
           D. 386PAR.swp


Q:
32. When executed from a bootable hard drive, which command will make a formatted floppy disk bootable? 
           A. COPY C:\DOS\COMMAND.COM A:\ 
           B. SYS C: A:
           C. SYS A:
           D. XCOPY C:\DOS\*.* A:\


Q:
33 . Win95 supports what kind of multitasking?
           A. Preemptive
           B. Interleaving
           C. Cooperative 
           D. Multithreading


Q:
34 . How do you load a device into memory using Config.sys
           A. Load=High
           B. LoadHigh=
           C. DeviceHigh=
           D. Device=


Q:
35 . What utility is included with dos to view COM information?
           A. MSD 
           B. men
           C. chkdsk


Q:
36 .Memory that is paged from extended memory addresses to a 64k window in  the upper memory area is known as: 
           A. extended memory
           B. expanded memory
           C. virtual memory
           D. High memory


Q:
37 . Which of the following is not correct?. The POST is run every time: 
           A. The RESET button is pressed
           B. from a cold boot
           C. from a warm boot
           D. by turning computer off and then on.


Q:
38 . What DOS program can you run to see which serial ports are detected?
           A. command.com
           B. comdiag
           C. SDET
           D. MSD


Q:
39 . Where are most TSRs loaded?
           A. config.sys
           B. tsr.sys
           C. msdos.sys
           D. autoexec.bat


Q:
40 . Where is the "FILES=" statement placed?
           A. config.sys
           B. msdos.sys
           C. command.com
           D. autoexec.bat


Q:
41 . Where is the "BUFFERS=" statement placed?
           A. system.ini
           B. config.sys
           C. autoexec.bat
           D. win.ini


Q:
42 . What must be loaded before loading emm386.exe.
           A. Emm186.exe
           B. Config.ini
           C. Himem.ini
           D. Himem.sys


Q:
43. When DOS is loaded high it is placed in the HMA (high memory area). This is located:
           A. between 640k and 1024k
           B. the first 64k above 1024k
           C. anywhere in extended memory
           D. anywhere in expanded memory


Q:
44 . The upper memory area is located:
           A. between 512k and 840k
           B. between 640k and 1024k
           C. anything above 1024k
           D. between 1000k and 1024k


Q:
45 . Extended memory is:
           A. anything above 1024k
           B. anything above 640k
           C. anything accessed by rom
           D. anything above 1 meg


Q:
46. Extended memory is managed by:
           A. emm386.exe
           B. ram controller
           C. himem.sys
           D. DOS


Q:
47 . Expanded memory is managed by:
           A. himem.sys
           B. emm386.exe
           C. DOS
           D. rom bios


Q:
48. Conventional memory is:
           A. anything below 1024k
           B. only below 512k
           C. anything up to 640k
           D. anything between 640k and 1024k


Q:
49 . What DOS command shows which TSRs are loaded?
           A. TSR-SHOW
           B. MEM /c
           C. LOADVIEW
           D. hold down CTRL key and hit "T"


Q:
50 . As you soon as you see DOS starting, what key do you press to bypass 
      the startup files?
           A. F6
           B. F8
           C. F5
           D. ESC


Q:
51 . As soon as you see DOS starting, what key do you press to step 
      through the startup files?
           A. F4
           B. F5
           C. F8
           D. ALT


Q:
52 . Cross-linked files are files which erroneously claim the same cluster. Only one file can have the cluster, which means that fixing the problem will result in some data loss, but recovering one file is better than losing both. What DOS program "fixes" cross-linked files?
           A. chkdsk
           B. verify
           C. unlink
           D. scandisk


Q:
53 . Which file is the user interface to the DOS prompt?
           A. command.com
           B. io.sys
           C. msdos.sys
           D. prompt.com


Q:
54 . What device driver is used to create a virtual (or ram) drive?
           A. ramdrive.sys
           B. vram.sys
           C. virtual.sys
           D. virtual.ram


Q:
55 . What command is used to partition a hard drive?
           A. fdisk 
           B. format
           C. chkdsk
           D. format /q


Q:
56. The Windows file system.ini contains primarily:
           A. Windows system settings and device drivers
           B. Windows parameters used under DOS
           C. used only by Windows 95, not Windows 3.x
           D. desktop and application settings


Q:
57 . To change your swap file settings, which one of these is correct?
           A. go to program manager, virtual memory settings, swap file
           B. go to control panel, swap file settings
           C. go to file manager, swap file, virtual memory settings
           D. go to control panel, 386 enhanced, virtual memory


Q:
58 . What is a PIF?
           A. program information file
           B. programmed input file
           C. processed information files
           D. programmed information format


Q:
59 . If you want to upgrade Windows 3.1 to Windows 95, and save all your application settings, you must:
           A. install Win95 with the /old switch
           B. install Win95 with the /DOS switch
           C. install Win95 in the DOS directory
           D. install Win95 in the same directory as Win 3.1


Q:
60 . What file is part of the Windows 95 Registry?
           A. sys.com
           B. system.dat
           C. system.com
           D. reg.com


Q:
61 . What file is a Windows 95 Registry backup file?
           A. user.da0
           B. sys.bak
           C. reg.bak
           D. system.bak


Q:
62. What is the command file used to bring up the Registry editor?
           A. regedit.exe 
           B. regist.exe
           C. redit.bat
           D. openreg.exe


Q:
63. Which Registry key stores all of the system settings?
           A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
           B. HKEY_SYS_SETTINGS
           C. HKEY_PC_SETTINGS
           D. HKEY_LOCAL_COMPUTER


Q:
64 . You are installing Windows 95, and it crashes or hangs during the hardware detection phase. What is a good way to figure out what happened?
           A. look at detlog.txt
           B. look at crash.log
           C. look at crashdet.log
           D. look at detlog.log


Q:
65 . You have several application running, and the one you are currently working on freezes up. What do you do?
           A. reboot the PC
           B. click "ignore" and work on the other apps
           C. CTRL-ALT-DELETE twice, control panel, programs, select, end
           D. CTRL-ALT-DELETE once, select the offending program, click "End Task"


Q:
66 . You are having problems with your PC, and you want to start it in "Safe Mode", so that just the minimum configuration needed to run Windows 95 loads. How do you do this?
           A. F4
           B. F8, select "Safe Mode"
           C. press ALT-S as soon as Windows starts
           D. type Win95 /s at a DOS prompt


Q:
67 . Windows 95 gives you the opportunity to create a startup disk when you install it. However, if you skip it during installation, how can you create one later?
           A. go to control panel, add/remove programs, startup disk tab, create
           B. open "My Computer", select startup disk
           C. go to System, Programs, Startup
           D. go to control panel, startup disk, create


Q:
68 . From what part of Windows 95 can you view device properties or remove them completely?
           A. right-click on My computer, Properties, device manager
           B. control panel, devices
           C. system, settings
           D. explorer, devices


Q:
69 . How are IRQ, DMA, and I\O port information displayed?
           A. run Mem
           B. run Explorer, system, properties, settings
           C. view the System key in the Registry
           D. start, settings, control panel, system, device manager, double-click computer


Q:
70 . How do you create a shortcut?
           A. right-click desktop, select new, select shortcut
           B. control panel, system, settings, shortcuts
           C. run shortcut.exe
           D. control panel, create shortcut


Q:
71 . You name a file "This is my file". How is the file name displayed from the DOS prompt?
           A. thisismy.fil
           B. thisis~1
           C. this.ile
           D. this_is_my_file


Q:
72 . Which one is not a Windows95 installation log file?
           A. BOOT.LOG 
           B. SETUPLOG.TXT 
           C. BOOTLOG.TXT
           D. DETCRASH.LOG


Q:
73 .Which one is a windows 95 installation file?
           A. WIN95_13.DLL
           B. WIN95_13.EXE
           C. WIN95_13.CAB
           D. WIN95_13.TXT


Q:
74 . In Windows 95, the concept of giving one program memory when needed, while taking it away from another is:
           A. Dynamic Memory Allocation
           B. Static Memory Allocation
           C. Plug and Play
           D. 32-bit Memory addressing


Q:
75 . Which utility can speed up the performance of your machine?
           A. MSD 
           B. SCANDISK
           C. DEFRAG
           D. CHKDSK


Q:
76 . What can you do as a workaround to the "Incorrect DOS version" error?
           A. Start up the compute with a boot disk that disables the VER feature
           B. Enter the Setup utility to disable ROM shadowing
           C. Use SETVER to report another version of DOS
           D. Use SETVER to disable the VER feature in BIOS


Q:
77 . What command in Windows 95 allows easy access to most of the text-based configuration files?
           A. CONTROL PANEL
           B. EDIT
           C. REGEDIT
           D. SYSEDIT


Q:
78 . Which of the following would not cause a device in Device Manager to  have a ! next to it.
           A. The device driver is corrupted
           B. There is a resource conflict between that device and another one
           C. The device driver has failed to load properly
           D. The driver is operating normally


Q:
79 . To install a new device in Windows 95, a file is usually required that describes that device to the operating system. What type of file is required?
           A. INF 
           B. COM 
           C. CFG 
           D. CNF


Q:
80 . You encounter a hard disk that will no longer boot. After booting with an emergency boot floppy and running an anti-virus program, you successfully remove the virus that infected the boot sector of the hard disk. What command could you use to restore the boot record of the hard disk?
           A. FDISK /MBR
           B. RESTORE
           C. MIRROR
           D. FORMAT


Q:
81 . DOS consists of two basic types of commands. What are they?
           A. Formatted and non-formatted
           B. System and User
           C. Executable and Compiled
           D. Internal and External


Q:
82. Where does Windows look for the device driver KEYBOARD.DRV?
           A. SYSTEM.INI
           B. AUTOEXEC.BAT
           C. ANSI.INI
           D. WIN.INI


Q:
83 . Four of the attributes that are stored on a file in DOS are:
           A. Read, System, Read/Write, Share
           B. Read Write, System, Hidden
           C. Read, Write, Hidden, Archive
           D. Read, System, Hidden, Archive


Q:
84 . To copy all the files and subdirectories from one directory to another use the ________ command.
           A. COPY
           B. COPY /S
           C. XCOPY
           D. XCOPY /S


Q:
85. What type of multitasking requires that an application voluntarily relinquish control of the CPU?
           A. Non-Preemptive
           B. Cooperative
           C. Preemptive
           D. Linear


Q:
86 . Program Manager in Windows 3.x stores information concerning the program groups in files with what extension?
           A. GRP 
           B. GRO 
           C. PRO
           D. PRG


Q:
87 . Where are the individual groups to be loaded by Program Manager located?
           A. PROGMAN.INI
           B. PROGMAN.DAT
           C. WIN.INI
           D. USER.DAT


Q:
88 . Which of the following are not Windows 3.x system files?
           A. USER.DAT
           B. GDI.EXE
           C. WIN.INI
           D. SYSTEM.INI


Q:
89 . Which of the following is not required for operating system startup?
           A. IO.SYS
           B. MSDOS.SYS
           C. COMMAND.COM
           D. CONFIG.SYS


Q:
90 . You usually run Windows 95 on your computer, but one day you left a bootable DOS 6.22 diskette in the floppy drive. You let it bootup DOS, and decide to defrag your hard drive using DOS 6.22. What happens to your  Windows 95 long file names?
           A. they are given a "dos" extension
           B. they are stored in the TEMP directory
           C. they are gone
           D. they are hidden


Q:
91 . Which file system does Windows 95 not support?
           A. fat32
           B. fat
           C. vfat
           D. ntfs


Q:
92 . Which font type is infinitely rescalable?
           A. PCX
           B. bitmap
           C. vector
           D. outline


Q:
93 . The Windows file system.ini contains primarily:
           A. desktop and application settings
           B. Windows system settings and device drivers
           C. DOS parameters under Windows
           D. Windows parameters used under DOS


Q:
94 . Win.com supports a number of switches to force Windows to start in the mode selected. You enter win.com /s at the DOS prompt. How is Windows started?
           A. standard mode
           B. safe mode
           C. swap mode
           D. 386 enhanced mode


Q:
95 . What command changes or adds a volume label?
           A. vol
           B. vol /add
           C. label
           D. label /add


Q:
96 . DOSKEY is a:
           A. ROM command
           B. Hardware driver
           C. Modem command
           D. TSR program


Q:
97 . Which two files make up the Registry in Windows 95?
           A. CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT
           B. COMMAND.COM and CONFIG.SYS
           C. MSDOS.SYS and IO.SYS
           D. USER.DAT and SYSTEM.DAT


Q:
98 . Which file starts programs automatically when Windows 3.1 starts?
           A. WIN.INI
           B. SETUP.INI
           C. SYSTEM.INI
           D. SYSTEM.DA0


Q:
99 . The .PIF files are used by Windows to support _______ programs?
           A. Windows
           B. DOS
           C. protected-mode
           D. multitasking


Q:
100 . What can you do to increase the size of available conventional memory?
           A. Add RAM
           B. Add "DOS=HIGH" to the CONFIG.SYS file
           C. You can not change the size of the available conventional memory
           D. Rearrange the loading order of drivers


Q:
101 . You should not run _______ from win 3.1.
           A. chkdsk
           B. Fdisk
           C. Format
           D. xcopy


Q:
102 . The ______ command is the same as delete.
           A. Remove
           B. Erase
           C. Deltree


Q:
103 . Smartdrv.exe loads in the_______. 
           A. Autoexec.bat
           B. Bios
           C. Config.sys


Q:
104 . What do you type to get the current version of dos?
           A. Ver
           B. Setver
           C. Dosver


Q:
105 . The Dos based FAT must be located at sector __ of the hard drive
           A. 0
           B. 1
           C. 2


Q:
106 . Emm386.exe must not be loaded after Himem.sys.
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
107 . What are the two hidden Dos system files?
           A. Io.sys, msdos.sys
           B. config.sys, Autoexec.bat
           C. command.com, Io.sys
           D. Autoexec.bat, msdos.sys


Q:
108 . The mouse driver, mouse.sys loads in the ______?
           A. Autoexec.bat
           B. Config.sys
           C. Win.ini
           D. System.ini


Q:
109 . What can MSD not give you information about?
           A. Operaing system
           B. Video
           C. Cache
           D. com ports


Q:
110 . Command Com. contains several small Dos utilites, called internal commands.
           A. true
           B. false


Q:
111 . How do you switch between running programs?
           A. CTRL-ESCAPE
           B. ALT TAB
           C. ALT ESCAPE
           D. SHIFT ALT


Q:
112 . Which Windows file contains hardware information?
           A. WIN.INI
           B. SYS.INI
           C. CONTROL.INI
           D. SYSTEM.INI


Q:
113 . Where would you configure the Swap file in WIN 3.1?
           A. 386 Enhanced Control Panel \ Virtual Memory
           B. 386 Enhanced Control Panel \ Swap File
           C. Windows Setup \ Virtual memory


Q:
114 . How much free conventional memory is provided by WIN 95 for DOS sessions?
           A. 560k
           B. 640k
           C. 600k


Q:
115 . A temporary Swap file has what file extension?
           A. swp
           B. par
           C. swap
           D. txt


Q:
116 . A permanent Swap file has what file extension?
           A. swp
           B. par
           C. swap
           D. txt


Q:
117 . What is CDFS?
           A. CD Rom Drivers
           B. File System Drivers
           C. Video Drivers


Q:
118 . A customer calls and says his PC was working fine yesterday but he turned on this morning and he is getting an error that reads "Invalid System Disk". What could be the problem?
           A. Invalid CMOS setting
           B. Format
           C. floppy in drive


Q:
119 . How to get your registry file back?
           A. Copy system.da0 to system.dat & copy user.da0 to user.dat
           B. Use the regedit command
           C. format the harddrive
           D. Call Microsoft


Q:
120 . Which of the following gets the start menu if the taskbar is hidden?
           A. CTRL-ESCAPE
           B. ALT TAB
           C. ALT ESCAPE
           D. CTRL ALT


Q:
121 . What utility that comes with WIN 95 can you use to view your systems kernel processor usage?
           A. System Monitor
           B. Net Watcher
           C. System Agent


Q:
122 . What utility would you use to view a document without opening the application associated with that document?
           A. Instant View
           B. Quick View
           C. Notepad


Q:
123 . What utility that comes with the Microsoft Plus pack can you enable to notify you that your disk space is getting low, or to run things such as Scandisk or Disk Defragmenter while you are away from your computer at a pre-determined time?
           A. System Monitor
           B. System Agent
           C. Net Watcher


Q:
124 . How could you check to see how much empty space is left on your hard drive?
           A. Go to Control Panel, then right click on the system, then choose Properties
           B. Go to My Computer, then double click on the drive, then choose Properties
           C. Go to My Computer, then right click on the drive, then choose Properties


Q:
125 . WIN 95 supports what kind of networking by default?
           A. Peer to Peer
           B. Client Server
           C. Domain
           D. WAN


# iNET

Question:
The Internet requires an ACL (Access Control List).

Explanation:
False

Internet Service Providers often require you to verify your identity before gaining access to the Internet but once you have gained access the Internet is open to everyone.


Question:
Where do the majority of corporate network security violations come from?

Explanation:
Employees

Intranets are typically secured from the Internet and outside hackers. The most likely source of security violations is from insiders. Violations may be intentional or accidental. In any case steps must be taken to protect networks from insiders. These steps should include carefully assigned permission.


Question:
Which network device guards a server from attacks over the Internet?

Explanation:
Firewall

Firewalls are computers or other devices that keep outsiders from accessing a secured network.


Question:
Which of the following method to send data over the Internet in a secure format?

SelectionA:
Tunneling protocol (Virtual Private Networks)

Explanation:
Tunneling protocol (Virtual Private Networks)
Tunneling protocols like PPTP and L2TP provide for secure data transmissions over the Internet.


Question:
What does CSS stand for in a server/Internet capacity?

Explanation:
Commercial Secured Server

For web site development, it would be Cascading Style Sheets. In the context of servers and/or e-commerce security, it means Commercial Secure Server.


Question:
Dynamic Packet Filtering is used by .....?

Explanation:
Firewalls

Packet filtering firewall technology has been improved by the addition of dynamic packet filtering. In dynamic packet filtering all incoming packets are compared against defined rules contained in a limited command set for one or more low level protocols. The rules determine if the packet is denied or accepted and passed on to the network stack. Each packet is then associated with additional information based on information contained within the packet. Based on a combination of the data contained within the network packet and the state information, dynamic rules are added or removed from the packet filter. If a packet satisfies all of the packet filter rules it either propagates up the network stack for future processing or gets forwarded to the network host.


Question:
If you want to have secure communications on your Intranet, what must you implement in order to create your own key pairs?

Explanation:
Certificate server

In order to be able to accept credit cards on line, you must install a security certificate from the certificate authority. Verisign is a certificate authority. The certificates are used for data encryption and also for authenticating web sites. When you access a commercial web site and placing the order with your credit card, the Certificate, installed on that site, tells your browser that the web site is really who they say they are because they have been verified by the certificate authority prior to issuing the certificate.


Question:
When a system is sent repeated ICMP echo requests. Choose 2

Explanation:
Ping flood, Ping attack

Ping uses the ICMP protocol. If someone sends you a continuous stream of Ping packets, your machine can become bogged down by trying to reply to all of them.


Question:
Which organization approves the standards of Anti-Virus Software?

Explanation:
ICSA

ICSA Labs is the security industry's central product testing and certification body. ICSA Labs certifies 98 percent of the market's anti-virus software.
W3C - World Wide Web Consortium develops open standards for the Web. The W3C is the chief standards body for HTTP and HTML.
IETF - Internet Engineering Task Force is the main standards organization for the Internet.
IAB - Internet Architecture Board - is a technical advisory group of the Internet Society It oversees the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), Internet standards process, and  Request for Comments (RFCs)


Explanation:
Ciphertext

Encryption (also called cryptography) is a method of transforming communications and stored data into a form that is unintelligible to anyone other than the intended receiver. The original data are referred to as plaintext and the encrypted data as ciphertext. With modern encryption systems, the data are represented as streams of 0's and 1's, and the encryption algorithm transforms the plaintext bit stream into one that appears random.


Explanation:
SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, a protocol used to transfer electronic mail between computers. The SMTP dialog usually happens in the background under the control of the message transport system, but it is possible to interact with an SMTP server using telnet to connect to the normal SMTP port, 25.


Explanation:
In Virtual Private Networks

Virtual Private Networks are built using PPTP or other tunneling protocols to provide encrypted (secure) communications across the Internet. They are used for connecting two different company sites such as with an Extranet, or for allowing a remote user to securely access a site.


Question:
Which protocol has the highest security?

Explanation:
PPTP

Point to Point Tunneling Protocol, a protocol for connecting Windows NT clients and servers over Remote Access Services (RAS). PPTP can be used to create a Virtual Private Network between computers running NT. PPTP encrypts the data transmitted.


Question:
Where do the majority of security violations within corporate networks come from?

Explanation:
Employees

Whether intentionally or unintentionally employees can usually cause the most havoc if their permissions are not properly controlled.


Question:
You want to increase the security of e-mail messages being sent from employees in your organization. Which of the following server types could you set up to help you to accomplish this?

Explanation:
Certificate

Establishing a certificate server using software such as Netscape Certificate Server or Microsoft Certificate Server would enable you to create and verify digital certificates that provide encryption of e-mail messages. 

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) can also be used to encrypt e-mail, however PGP is not a server type - it is software that can be used to encrypt e-mail using digital signatures as opposed to digital certificates. 

Proxy servers can be used to cache web pages for faster access or to filter TCP packets. FTP servers can be used to transfer files. Neither of these servers encrypts e-mail messages.


Question:
Susan's Web server crashes every time she restarts it. She uses a packet sniffer and discovers a ping flood directed at her server. Which type of attack is occurring?

Explanation:
Denial of service 
  
Denial-of-service attacks are the most common type of attack. These occur when the host or system cannot perform properly because another program or node on a network is using all the system's resources. A hacker can generate a rapid flood of information, such as a large number of ping packets (called a ping flood), to overburden or crash the network device. 

A brute force attack occurs when a hacker attempts to gain access to the network as a legitimate user. The hacker keeps trying different combinations of user names and passwords until he is able to log on. 

Spoofing refers to an attack in which the hacker's host or application poses as a legitimate network device. The hacker might use IP spoofing so it appears as though the packets originated from a trusted system. 

An insider attack is one in which someone physically inside the organization does the hacking.


Question:
What is the ability to change the IP packet to take the identify of another system called?

Explanation:
Spoofing 

Spoofing is using a protocol analyzer or other device to intercepting and decoding packets sent to and from the server in order to find the account ID and password. With this information the spoofer can pretend to be the transmitter or recipient of the data packet.


Question:
Which type of scan allows an antivirus program to find undefined viruses by looking for suspicious activity?

Explanation:
heuristic scan 

A heuristic scan is a type of antivirus scan that looks for suspicious activity that might indicate a virus, even if there is no definition for that virus. Suspicious activity might be a program going resident, or making changes to the operating system. False alerts are common, and can scare an inexperienced user. 

An on-demand scan is one that starts when the user tells the software to scan for viruses. It uses specific virus definitions. 

An on-access scan looks for viruses whenever a file is accessed. For instance, when you open a file sent in an email, or download a file from the Internet, the software would automatically initiate a virus scan. 

An emergency scan is performed when it is likely that a virus has already taken control of the computer. It runs from an emergency boot disk so that only the antivirus software and the operating system are running.


Question:
What single-key encryption method is used to encrypt and decrypt a message?

Explanation:
symmetric 

This is symmetric because the reciever decode a transmission with exactly the same key that was used to encode the transmission.


Question:
Which of the following describes a "man in the middle" security attack?

SelectionA:
A hacker intercepting and substituting a security key

SelectionD:
A hacker using a password-breaking program

Explanation:
A hacker intercepting and substituting a security key

An Internet hacker may interfere with the initial public key exchange, by intercepting the very first message to a new correspondent and substituting the genuine public key with a bogus one.


Question:
You are the security expert on a Web site development team. The specification for an e-commerce system you are implementing requires secure user authentication. Which of the following solutions will meet those needs?

Explanation:
Digital certificates

Digital certificates and certificate servers are a form of authentication and are used as a secure method of exchanging public keys over a nonsecure network such as the Internet.


Question:
You are getting a large number of ICMP (SMURF) attacks. How can you protect your network?

Explanation:
Filtering on the Proxy Server

Filtering on the proxy server is the way to protect your network from a smurf attack. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network. 

Smurfing is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. 

Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.


Question:
Why cannot U.S. sites support browser encryption that uses keys longer than 40 bits?

SelectionA:
Most countries outside US only use browser capable of 40 bit encryption.

SelectionB:
Keys over 40 bits require certificate authorities.

SelectionD:
Web servers use 40 bit encryption for compatibility.

Explanation:
Most countries outside US only use browser capable of 40 bit encryption.

Browsers prior to Netscape 4.7, and Internet Explorer 5.5, came in two flavors. Ones which have been exported from the US, which are limited to 40, and 56 bit support, due to US export regulations. These are called International or non-US versions. Browsers downloaded inside the US and Canada, support 128 bit 'strong encryption'.

In terms of what the numbers represent, "128" and "40" bit encryption refer to the size of the key used to encrypt the message. Roughly speaking, 128-bit encryption is 309,485,009,821,345,068,724,781,056 times stronger than 40-bit encryption. Presently, 40-bit encryption is not considered "strong" security in the cryptographic community.


Explanation:
L2TP, PPTP

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) and PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)


Explanation:
PPTP

Point to Point Tunneling Protocol  (PPTP) is used to ensure that messages transmitted from one VPN node to another are secure.

The second best choice would be Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) but L2TP alone cannot encrypt data. For encryption L2TP relies on IP security (IPSec).


Question:
You know that web pages using HTTP have a default "well known" port number of 80. But while accessing an Internet vendor you instead of seeing the URL  http://www.examdrill.com/  you see that the URL is  https://www.examdrill.com/  and there is a closed padlock in the status bar of the browser. What port number are you accessing?

Explanation:
443

This is the default port for HTTPS/SSL. This is the encrypted form of HTTP that normally runs over port 80. This is the default port used when you do credit card transactions with an e-commerce site. 

All communication between the server and the browser is encrypted when you use SSL. You can tell when you are using SSL by looking at the URL - it starts "https://" (as opposed to "http://") and most browsers have some visual indication, e.g., Netscape has an unbroken key or locked padlock in the bottom left-hand corner of the browser (on the Status Bar), Internet Explorer has a padlock that is locked toward the bottom right-hand corner of the browser (also on the Status Bar). SSL uses well known port number 443


Question:
You are making an online purchase and notice that there is a padlock icon in the status bar of your browser window as shown below. What does this mean?

SelectionA:
You have contacted a server using Secure Sockets Layer Encryption.

SelectionB:
You do not have the proper rights to access this page or site.

SelectionC:
The website has been locked because of a security breach.

SelectionD:
The web page has been saved to your hard drive.

Explanation:
You have contacted a server using Secure Sockets Layer Encryption.

SSL is an encryption scheme.  All communication between the server and the browser (for instance credit card number) is encrypted when you use SSL. You can tell when you are using SSL by looking at the URL - it starts "https://" (as opposed to "http://") and most browsers have some visual indication, e.g., Netscape has an unbroken key or locked padlock in the bottom left-hand corner of the browser (on the Status Bar), Internet Explorer has a padlock that is locked toward the bottom right-hand corner of the browser (also on the Status Bar). The absence of the padlock indicates that the data you are viewing is not secure.


Question:
Which technology implements VPNs using IPSec?

Explanation:
L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol)

Virtual Private Networks are built using PPTP or other tunneling protocols to provide encrypted (secure) communications across the Internet. They are used for connecting two different company sites such as with an Extranet, or for allowing a remote user to securely access a site. Of the two tunneling protocols which are important for the I-Net+ exam you should know that PPTP encrypts and tunnels data but L2TP uses IP Security protocol (IPSec) to encrypt data..


Question:
Which step is most subject to network congestion?

SelectionB:
Server generating contents for the output

SelectionC:
Transmitting the response from server to client

SelectionD:
The request waiting in the server's queue.

Explanation:
Transmitting the response from server to client.

A server generating contents for the output and displaying the content on the client are not really bandwidth issues. They have to do with processing and display power in the server and the client. However getting a request to the computer and transmitting the response to the client are bandwidth bottleneck problems.


Question:
What two things does a digital signature verify?

SelectionB:
Verifies the information in a document was not tampered with.

SelectionC:
Encrypts a message to which it is applied

Explanation:
Verifies the identity of the sender.
Verifies the information in a document was not tampered with.

A digital signature verifies two things: the source of a document, and its integrity. When, for instance, a notary electronically signs a transcript, the entire document is mathematically manipulated to produce a fingerprint, which is then encrypted along with a unique ID. When the recipient checks the signature, it will fail to verify if even a single character has been changed. This assures that your copy of the document has not been tampered with, and that it came from the notary it purports to come from. 

The simplest way to sign documents electronically is to use systems like PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) or VeriSign, which have gained widespread acceptance as secure signature systems, and have no per-use cost.


Question:
What protocol does not use Logon Authentication?

Explanation:
SLIP

Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) does not provide error detection, compression or encryption.
Point-to Point Protocol (PPP) is the Internet standard for transmitting network layer datagrams, for instance IP packets, over serial point-to-point links.
Point to Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a protocol  that can be used to create a Virtual Private Network between computers running NT.
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a tunneling protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model L2TP uses IPSec to encrypt data.


Question:
If the server has lots of open connections but is not completing them You run "netstat -n -p tcp" and get the results as shown in the exhibit. What is happening?

Explanation:
SYN Attack

An intruder can write a program that will establish a connection with your server and half-open TCP ports. That will block the access to your server.If a large number of connections are in the SYN_RECEIVED state, it is possible that the system is under attack.  Netstat can be used to identify how many half open connections you have.


Question:
Which is a single key encryption method?

Explanation:
Symmetric

Symmetric encryption is a type of encryption where the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt the message. Asymmetric, or public key, encryption uses one key to encrypt and another to decrypt the message.


Question:
Why cannot U.S. sites support browser encryption that uses keys longer than 40-bits?

SelectionA:
Such technology is regarded as munitions grade by the U.S. government

SelectionB:
Foreign governments do not allow such strong encryption techniques.

SelectionC:
Firewalls will not allow data with 40-bit key encryption through.

SelectionD:
Long keys cannot be transmitted across a WAN.

Explanation:
Such technology is regarded as munitions grade by the U.S. government.

The U.S. government has designated strong encryption technology, (such as 128 bits) as munitions and a threat to national security. It is illegal to export encryption technology based on more than 40 bits.


Question:
Access control is NOT used on which type of network?

Explanation:
Internet

While ISPs generally use access controls, the Internet itself is open to everyone that can obtain a connection.


Question:
Some of your user connecting via RAS, what's best to prevent unauthorized access to your network?

Explanation:
Firewall

Firewalls are used to prevent unauthorized access from the external network such as Internet to your local network. Many organizations configure firewalls to prohibit access to certain domains.


Question:
Where could you find specifications for secure online transaction?

Explanation:
SET

The SET Secure Electronic Transaction protocol is designed to help break down barriers to electronic commerce such as misuse or theft of data. SET was jointly developed by MasterCard, VISA, IBM and other technology companies. It's an industry-wide open standard for online credit card transactions. 

SET helps ensure the privacy and integrity of real time credit card payments transactions over the Internet. The SET protocol only addresses the transaction payment phase -- from the individual, to the merchant, to the the merchant's current credit card processor.


Question:
In order to access a web site named secure.website.com that uses SSL and requires you to log on. Which URL is correct?

Explanation:
https://username:password@secure.website.com

Web pages that require an SSL connection start with https. Notice the "s" after the "http.
Username and password are separated by a colon and Password and server are separated by an ampersand (@).


Question:
You just got over a denial of service due to a PING attack, what can you do to prevent it from happening again?

SelectionA:
Reconfigure your firewall to disallow ICMP echo replies entering your network.

SelectionB:
Install antivirus suite in each work station.

SelectionC:
Install active hub between the firewall and the server.

Explanation:
Reconfigure your firewall to disallow ICMP echo replies entering your network.

A PING flood is when multiple ICMP PING messages are sent to the server. This will result in high traffic to your server and access to legitimate clients will be denied. By reconfiguring the firewall to disallow ICMP echo replies this kind of attack will be impossible.


Question:
Which of the following attributes can you use to increase the amount of space in between cells?

Explanation:
The CELLSPACING attribute of the tag adds space in between cells. You specify the amount of space in pixels as in this example: .

The CELLAPDDING attribute of the tag adds space in between the cell contents and the cell border. Its syntax is similar to that of CELLSPACING.

The BORDER attribute specifies the size of the border around the table. Its syntax is similar to that of CELLSPACING. 

The COLSPAN attribute allows you to create cells that are wiser than other cells in the same column by allowing them to span multiple columns. You can use the COLSPAN attribute and the similar ROWSPAN attribute with the and tags.


Question:
You want to create a bulleted list of three items on your HTML page. Which of the following code selections will enable you to accomplish this?

Explanation:
Item1Item2Item3
  

Use  to create an unordered, bulleted list. Use  to create an ordered, numbered list. 

Enclosed within the beginning and ending tags for an ordered or unordered list, use the  tag before each item in the list. Closing 
 tags are unnecessary.


Question:
In a multi-tiered architecture object, request brokers can be implemented through what?

Explanation:
CORBA

If your application is running on a single computer, it has a one-tier architecture. If your application is running on two computers, for instance, a Web CGI application that runs on a Web browser and a Web server, then it has two tiers. In a two-tier system, you have a client program and a server program.

A three-tier application adds a third program to this, usually a database, in which the server stores its data. The flow of information is: a request comes from the client to the server; the server requests or stores data in the database; the database returns information to the server; the server returns information back to the client. Many technologies exist that help contain this complexity, including CORBA, EJB, DCOM, and RMI, and products based on these technologies are being marketed.


Explanation:
PERL

Two most popular types of server side scripts standards are CGI ( Common Gateway Interface)
and ISAPI (Internet Server Application Programming Interface). CGI scripts can be written in
many programming languages. PERL (Practical Extraction and Report Language) and C are
probably the most popular for writing CGI scripts.


Question:
HTML is an anagram for Hypertext Markup Language. The "D" in "DHTML" stands for what?

Explanation:
Dynamic

The purpose of Dynamic HTML is to make Web content more compelling, productive and interactive.

Microsoft and Netscape agree on some basic Dynamic HTML specifications, including address layering, which allows the overlaying of HTML text and images; positioning, which lets Web designers position information on a screen with pixel-level accuracy; and Web fonts.


Question:
You have a graphic on your web page that is 40mm x 60mm. Which format loads the fastest?

Explanation:
72 dpi 

The lowest resolution would represent the least amount of data that must be transmittted. Therefore the graphic with a resolution of 72 dots per inch (dpi) would be transmitted more quickly than the other choices.


Explanation:
Cascading Style Sheet

CSS (Cascading Style Sheet) is a collection of elements that describe how different HTML elements are presented. CSS information can be stored in a separate file on the server and all web pages can have links to that file. This way all pages will have the same look and feel.


Question:
You have created a Web page that uses some proprietary tags developed by Microsoft for Internet Explorer 5. What will happen when users view this page with browsers developed by other manufacturers?

SelectionA:
The Web page will be viewed the same in each browser.

SelectionB:
Text and graphics using the proprietary tags will not display as expected in some or all of the other browsers.

SelectionC:
There are no proprietary tags. All tags are created by W3C.

SelectionD:
The browsers will attempt to display the formatted elements by "guessing", similar to the way fonts are displayed when a user does not have a specific font used in the page.

Explanation:
Text and graphics using the proprietary tags will not display as expected in some or all of the other browsers.


Question:
JavaScripts and PERL scripts are examples of what?

SelectionA:
Plain text files that can be written using any text editing application.

SelectionD:
Encrypted text that are that need to be compiled.

Explanation:
Plain text files that can be written using any text editing application.

JavaScript is interpreted by the browser, while PERL scripts are run on the server. Both can be written using a text editor.
Visual Basic Script (VBScript) is different from Java and PERL. VBScript may require Microsoft's Internet Explorer to run correctly.


Question:
You want to implement ASP (Active server Pages) on your sites server. What must be in place before you can use these types of pages?

Explanation:
IIS

Internet Information Server is the Microsoft's implementation of the Web server. If you need to have ASP (active server pages), you must use IIS.


Question:
What is Microsoft's preferred server-side scripting language called?

Explanation:
Active Server Pages (ASP)

If you need to have ASP (active server pages), you must use IIS, Microsoft's Internet Information Server.


Explanation:
Content line

The concept behind the MIME format is simple: instead of assuming that e-mails are plain text, MIME allows the sending computer to specify the specific details of the content itself (such as its content-type and encoding type). In comparison to a standard e-mail, MIME formatted e-mail includes three extra headers: MIME-Version, Content-Type and Content-Transfer-Encoding. Take a look at the MIME encoded email below. You might have to scroll down to see all of it.

From: "Dan the man" <dan@examdrill.com>
To: bill techs <bill@tech.net>
Subject: Hello from Dan!
Date: Fri, 10 Jan 2002 23:10:40 -0400
Message-ID: <000d01c0f9e7$bee1bb00$8a22f340@oemcomputer>
MIME-Version: 1.0
Content-Type: text/plain;
charset="iso-8859-1"
Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit
Hello from examdrill.com!


Question:
You have a site that can host "virtual servers" which use different DNS names that are resolved to the same IP address. Which of the following protocols allows this this?

Explanation:
HTTP 1.1

HTTP is the protocol that enables the use of virtual servers. All the other choices are not protocols at all they are programming languages.


Question:
“Method”, “Action”, and “Input Type” are all attributes of what?

Explanation:
Form

A form might look something like this:


Question:
What are the three basic elements of every web?

Explanation:
Every web page has three basic elements: HTML declaration, head and body.

The basic structure of the HTML document is
<TITLE>pages title
the contents of the page go here including all necessary formatting
tags


Question:
Which of the following is not essential for a web page?

<TITLE>

Explanation:

This is a form element and must be defined within a FORM tag. The allows a text entry area with multiple rows. Note that it's a container and has a closing tag.
The basic structure of the HTML document is
<TITLE>pages title
the contents of the page go here including all necessary formatting tags
Web page has three basic elements: HTML declaration, head and body. Some tags require attributes.


Question:
What is the most common way of getting information from a web surfer?

Explanation:
An HTML form

Forms are used for the input of data that will be sent to the server for processing. An example of the form is the e-mail form that is widely used on the Internet. A user can fill out the form and send the data to the server. The HTML tag to start the form is . It requires the closing tag .


Question:
Where do most search engines get their information about sites from?

Explanation:
META tags. 

The <META> tags go inside the ... tags. <META> tags are used to include the site's description and keywords that search engines use to index sites. META tags must have attributes. Usual attributes are "name" and "content". For instance:


SelectionA:
Tells the browser what type of language to expect in the page.

SelectionB:
Tells the server what type of language to expect in the page.

SelectionD:
Translates Unicode text to be read by a browser.

Explanation:
Tells the browser what type of language to expect in the page.

This helps search engines and browsers understand different languages as being different languages rather than just misspelled English. 

For example: SPAN LANG="es">el Taladro de Examen le da muchos de preguntas de práctica y las explicaciones que cubren todos los objetivos de examen verdaderos.

The LANG sub-command does not translate. You must still write the text in the native tongue. The LANG command just allows the search engines to recognize that section as Spanish text. Here are some other codes: ar (Arabic), de (German), el (Greek), fr (French), he (Hebrew), hi (Hindi), ja (Japanese), it (Italian), nl (Dutch), pt (Portuguese), ur (Urdu), ru (Russian), sa (Sanskrit), zh (Chinese).


Question:
You use the following code in your web page. It is not loading properly. What should you do to fix it?
<TITLE>EXAM DRILL
Copyright © 2000 EXAM DRILL

SelectionA:
The closing tag needs to be fixed.

SelectionB:
Capitalize all the tags such as or

SelectionC:
Write in lower case tags such as <TITLE> or

SelectionD:
The closing tag needs to be fixed.

Explanation:
The closing tag needs to be fixed.

The closing tag needs to be changed to . The closing should be closed ( ) but if you try making this simple web page with a text editor you will see that even if the closing tag is left out there is no change.


Question:
Under what circumstances may a webmaster use content from another site and place it on his own site?

SelectionA:
The other site is over twenty five years old.

SelectionB:
He changes the font to a different typeface.

SelectionC:
He uses the other site's text only but no graphics.

Explanation:
He is doing a parody.

A parody exists when one imitates a serious piece of work, such as literature, music or artwork, for a humorous or satirical effect. A parody, because it is a method of criticism, must inevitably make use of another creative work. This often creates a conflict between the creator of the work that is being parodied and the creator of the parody. It is also highly unlikely that a copyright owner will grant permission to a parodist to use their copyright protected work in creating a parody. 

Since copyright law prohibits the substantial use of a copyrighted work without permission of the copyright owner, it may be necessary for the parodist to rely on the fair-use defense to forestall any liability for copyright infringement.


Question:
To what does trademark protection apply?

Explanation:
Ad slogans

Trademarks apply to words, phrases, and images used to describe products and services. Of the choices given, Ad Slogans would be the only one that could be a trademark.

Processes would have to be patented.
Graphical artwork other than logos would be copyrighted.
MIDI files would be copyrighted.


Question:
Which is not eligible for copyright protection?

Explanation:
An ingredient list.

You cannot copyright an idea, procedure, process, system, method of operation, concept, principle, or discovery. Copyrights are for original works fixed in a tangible medium, including:
(1) literary works
(2) musical works, including any accompanying words
(3) dramatic works, including any accompanying music
(4) pantomimes and choreographic works
(5) pictorial, graphic, and sculptural works
(6) motion picture and other audiovisual works
(7) sound recordings
(8) architectural works


Question:
A friend gives you a gif graphic to use on your web page. What should you check before using it?

SelectionC:
If it is compatible with your user's browsers.

SelectionD:
If it is compatible with the web server.

Explanation:
If it is copyrighted.

It is always wise to make sure you aren't using copyrighted material on your web page. Some graphics design software programs include a feature to embed a copyright notice in the graphics file in a form of a digital signature called a watermark. The watermark is not visible on the picture, but can be viewed with many graphics software.

If the file were corrupted, it would not display properly and you would easily notice that. A graphic does not need to be compatible with web servers, the server simply stores it and allows it to be downloaded when requested by browsers. We may also safely assume that browser can display gif files.


Question:
Copyright protecting your original work is ________?

SelectionA:
Required before you can use the (c) symbol

Explanation:
Not required, but highly recommended

Notice and registration may be necessary in order to sue an infringer for damages and attorneys fees. Preferred notice is given by affixing the copyright symbol ["©", "(c)", "Copr."], date of first publication, and name of owner to the work.


Question:
How many years does a copyright offer protection for an invention?

Explanation:
0 YEARS

Copyrights offer no protection for inventions. Inventions must be protected by patents, which are much more difficult to obtain. (Copyrights are automatic as long as the creators can prove they are the original creator.)


Question:
How should a copyright appear in a "head" section?

SelectionB:

SelectionC:

Explanation:

This tag allows you to define when your page was created. As the writer of your page you hold the copyright to the material on it. This does not allow you to claim the copyright on other people's works even if their work appears on your page.


Question:
If an author dies two years after obtaining a copyright, how many total years does the copyright last?

Explanation:
72 years

Previous to 1998 that a work was protected for 50 years after an authors death before it passed into the public domain. This law has been changed several times, most recently in October of 1998. Here is an excert from the US federal statute. (17 U.S.C. § 101 et.seq) Sec. 302. 
"Duration of copyright: Works created on or after January 1, 1978 
(a) In General. Copyright in a work created on or after January 1, 1978, subsists from its creation and, except as provided by the following subsections, endures for a term consisting of the life of the author and 70 years after the author's death."

					-http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/17/302.html


Question:
Using a portion of a document protected by copyright as long as it does not take away from the original document, or is used for an educational purpose falls under the realm of which of the following?

Explanation:
Fair Use

The legal concept of "fair use" permits the use of copyrighted material under certain limited conditions. For the most part, the determining factors for the "fair use" concept usually come down to the size of the excerpt and whether or not the party using the copyrighted material is using it for profit.

The general idea is as follows:

1)  If the copyrighted material is being used for a non-profit application, it is more likely to fall under the "fair use" concept.

2) If the copyrighted material is being used in a factual report, it is more likely to fall under the "fair use" concept than  if used as part of a "creative" work. After all, something that is "creative" should be original, rather than copied.

3) The amount of the copyrighted document being used is important for it usage to fall under the "fair use" concept. If the copyrighted material constitutes a large portion of the new work, it probably won't qualify as fair use.

4) If usage of the copyrighted material may cause a loss of revenue for the copyright holder, it is not likely to be considered fair use.


Question:
In order to be copyrighted, an original work must be registered.

Explanation:
False

Copyrights are now automatic when the work is "fixed." Notice and registration are not required. But registration may be necessary in order to sue an infringer for damages and attorneys fees. 

Notice is given by affixing the copyright symbol ("©", "(c)", "Copr."), date of first publication, and name of owner to the work. To read more on the copyright laws you can go directly to the source http://www4.law.cornell.edu/uscode/17/


Question:
What is another word for unsolicited e-mail advertising?

Explanation:
Spam
  
Electronic junk mail or junk newsgroup postings. Spam is generally e-mail advertising for some product sent to a mailing list or newsgroup. In addition to wasting people's time with unwanted e-mail, spam also wastes network bandwidth. But because the Internet is public, there is really little that can be done to prevent spam.


Question:
In order to have copyright protection, a work must be what?

Explanation:
Must be an original creation.

US copyright law protects any published or unpublished original material. The copyright protection starts from the time that material has been created. Copyright protection is automatic. It is not necessary to register your work with any US copyright office. It is recommended that you put a copyright notice on your web site and include the "©" symbol and the year that material was first published. Even if no copyright notice is included, the material is still protected under copyright law.


Question:
A webmaster from one site "borrows" content from another site and places it on his own. The content was protected by copyright and the Webmaster did not obtain permission to use it. Under what circumstance can the Webmaster do so without legal ramifications?

SelectionB:
If the Webmaster slightly modifies the content.

SelectionD:
If the Webmaster is not aware of the copyright.

Explanation:
If the Webmaster is doing a parody.

Copyright is the legal right granted to an author (including  composers, a playwrights, etc.) to exclusive publication, production, sale, or distribution of a his or her own work. A parody is an imitation of a style in which what is written on one subject is altered, and applied to another by way of burlesque or travesty.


Question:
What is the easiest way to add search capabilities to your web site?

Explanation:
Index Server

The easiest way to add search capabilities to your site is to add an Index server. An Index server will automatically index your site. After entering keywords, the index server returns the pages that are most relevant.


Question:
As the Director of Development you are planning a new web site for your company. A recent study of your users shows browser usage : 

23% use Netscape Navigator or Internet Explorer 5.x 
36% use Netscape Navigator or Internet Explorer 4.x 
7% use Netscape Navigator or Internet Explorer 3.x 
26% use AOL 4.x or higher 
8% use another browser 

Your goals are to minimize costs, make the site accessible to as many users as possible, but also take advantage of some of the latest development technologies. Which policy would be most appropriate?

Explanation:
85% policy 

The 85% policy is to use technology that will be accessible to 85% of your users. This is the most appropriate policy to meet the user's needs and the site goals. 

An Adaptive Content Policy uses Differential Content and Degradation to show appropriate content depending on the browser. On websites designed with Differential Content the server checks to see which browser is being used and sends appropriate content only. With Degradation, the website is designed in such a way that advanced features are just ignored by browsers that can't handle them. Although this would seem to be a good policy, it is often complex and costly, which doesn't match the criteria for the site. 

In the Lowest Common Denominator policy, the website is designed for almost any user, including those with much older browsers. This will capture the entire audience of users, but will not allow the use of more advanced Internet development technologies. 

A captive audience policy assumes that the users will want to see the content of the website so much that they will be willing to upgrade or change to whichever browser is needed. However, this will limit the number of users who will access the site.


Question:
You want to allow members of your organization to send e-mail to all other members of your organization.  Which server would be the one for you to use?

Explanation:
Directory

A directory server is not simply a form of database, but a specialized server for directories. A directory can be distinguished from a general-purpose database by the usage pattern. A directory contains information that is often searched but rarely modified. Host names or user names, for example, are assigned once and then looked up thousands of times. Directory servers are tuned for this type of usage, whereas relational databases are much more geared toward maintaining data that's constantly changing.


Question:
Which of the following is a standard protocol used on the Internet to ensure secure online payment by credit card?

Explanation:
SET 

SET is an acronym for Secure Electronic Transactions, a technology being developed to increase the security and privacy of online purchasing with credit cards. 

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the interorganization exchange of documents in standardized electronic format directly between participating computers. It can be thought of as an electronic replacement of many paper-based transactions, such as purchase orders, invoices, bills of material, and material releases. 

The protocol that is commonly used to send secure Web pages over the Internet is Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). 

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is the technology that encrypts Web traffic.


Question:
You have a business and you would like to share and exchange information exclusively with other businesses of the same type. Which of the following would you use to achieve this.?

Explanation:
Extranet

An EXTRANET would be the best option because it could be confined only to the companies you wish to exchange information with.
A VPN would be very secure but not necessary because you don't need a high level of security.
A supernet is to do with IP addressing
The Internet could be used, but it would be less private than an extranet.


Question:
Which of the following would provide shopping cart/ trolley services for your web site?

Explanation:
Merchant Services

Merchant Services provide shopping cart/trolley facilities for e-commerce sites. Merchant Services can include a virtual storefront and shopping carts. Merchants can add and update products or service at your convenience directly from a browser. Catalog all products, customize order page,  real time credit card processing and acceptance of noncash payments.


Question:
You use a database on your e-commerce site. In order for your browser to connect to that database what do you need to create?

SelectionC:
Hyperlink to the directory for the database

Explanation:
DSN

A Data Source Name is a unique name that identifies the database.


Question:
You are building a website and it is very important to you that users get information from the website based on their preferences. Which of the following will best help you achieve this?

Explanation:
Relational database

A relational database will enable you to store user preferences, because it can keep track of sets of data with multiple relationships. Data mining programs analyze data and draw conclusions from the analysis. Flat databases will not deal with multiple relationships.


Question:
You make a web page with a text editor with the text, "Welcome to my new web site!" However when you look at the page in a browser you do not see any text displayed. What should you change?

Explanation:
bgcolor="#800000"

As you can see the body text and the bgcolor (background color) have identical values. In this case maroon. Therefore your text is still there but you wrote with maroon chalk on a maroon blackboard.

If you have ever saved a web page to read later and it had colored background it could use an enormous amount of ink if you wanted to print it. By editing the HTML source you would save ink and possibly make it easier to read. Just open the page in a text editor and change the value of bgcolor to FFFFFF (that is white) save it and when you open the page with a browser the background will be white.


Question:
You would like to have 30 seconds of music play while Internet users view your web page. You upload the MIDI file to your web server and add the following HTML to your web page. However, when you view the page the music repeats endlessly. This is very annoying. What line could you add to prevent this?

Explanation:
loop   = FALSE

The corrected HTML would look like this. 

<EMBED  src     = "MIDI/Classical/stones.mid"
	width	= 200
	height	= 60
	loop	= FALSE
	align	= right
	>

When embedding sounds in web pages it is also a good practice to embed them later in the page. If a viewer has to wait for your MIDI file to load before seeing the page he or she will probably just click away.


Question:
What graphic file format supports partial transparency?

Explanation:
PNG 

PNG (Portable Network Graphics) supports transparency and interlacing and offers better compression than GIF. PNG also supports partial transparency. GIF supports transparency but the question was specifically asking for "partial" transparency.


Question:
Your friend has a  music publishing company and she provides samples of the music she publishes on her web site. Which of the following technologies is she using to do this?


Question:
Which of the following image formats require a plug-in?

Explanation:
Real Media

Real Media requires plug-in software to run in your browser. GIFs, JPGs and BMPs can be displayed without any extra plug-in.


Question:
How does streaming media formats allow for slowdowns in the data stream?

SelectionB:
Dividing the available bandwidth into normal and backup segments.

SelectionD:
Building up a buffer of data before playback begins.

Explanation:
Building up a buffer of data before playback begins.

Streaming video formats generally use a buffer to store several seconds worth of data so the player can draw data from the buffer when the transmission slows down.


Question:
What digital standard has a high compression rate because it only stores changes between frames?

Explanation:
MPEG

MPEG (Moving Picture Experts Group) Files are compressed digital video files considered to be of higher quality than QuickTime and others. Compression is done by only saving the changes between images instead of all the images.


Question:
How do streaming media formats allow for slowdowns in the data stream?

SelectionA:
By building up a buffer of data before playback begins.

SelectionD:
By anticipating what data will be delivered based on logical computations.

Explanation:
By building up a buffer of data before playback begins.

This is a big improvement over having to wait until an entire song or movie has downloaded before it begins playing.


Question:
What is the reformulation of HTML proposed by the World Wide Web Consortium which is XML compliant.

Explanation:
XHTML

The W3C (World Wide Web Consortium) has recently proposed the XHTML 1.0 specification. XHTML 1.0 is a reformulation of HTML as an XML application. Since XHTML is a modular XML application, communication with databases as well as new platforms (such as hand-held devices) will be possible without a great deal of coding.


Question:
What plugin allows images to be rotated in 3D?

Explanation:
Quicktime VR

QuickTime VR gives users access to interactive 3D videos. QuickTime VR makes it possible to navigate within a movie or image -- you can look up and down, turn around, zoom in and zoom out.


Question:
If you want to play streaming video on your site, what is the best technology to use?

Explanation:
REAL PLAYER

Real Player handles streaming video and audio files Real Player by Real Networks and Windows Media Player from Microsoft are the two most popular streaming media products.


Question:
How many colors are in the Web Safe palette?

Explanation:
216

The Web Safe Palette consists of 216 colors. Screen colors are made up of red, green and blue.We need to find the largest number that can be cubed to accommodate the three root colors RGB without its cubed value exceeding 256. That number is 6 (6 X 6 X 6 = 216 colors).


Question:
Streaming vector graphic is what plug in?

Explanation:
Flash

Flash files use vector graphics, meaning that they are composed of mathematic formulas instead of pixel details. This results in smaller, more efficient files.


Question:
Which plug-in supports animation, audio, and video on both Windows and Mac?

Explanation:
Shockwave

Shockwave is a technology developed by Macromedia, Inc, that allows the user to view Web pages with multimedia objects. Shockwave supports audio, animation, video and processes user actions such as mouse clicks. It runs on all Windows platforms as well as the Macintosh.


Explanation:
VRML (Virtual Reality Modeling Language)

VRML is to 3D graphics what HTML is to text: it is a common format that can be displayed on any computer using a standard WWW browser or using a standalone viewer. Complex 3D crystal structures can be described in VRML, including space filling, ball-and-stick, co-ordination polyhedrae etc.. They can be explored from the inside with full interactivity.


Explanation:
24 BIT

A Joint Picture Expert Group (JPEG) format is the preferred format for color photos to be displayed in a web browser. JPEG is a more compact file format and supports different levels of compression. A fundamental advantage of JPEG is that it stores full color information. That is 24 bits / pixel or 16 million colors.


Question:
Which standard only stores changes between frames to enhance the compression rate?

Explanation:
MPEG

MPEG achieves high compression rate by storing only the changes from one frame to another, instead of each entire frame. The video information is then encoded using a technique called DCT.


Question:
Which standard supports the animation of graphics?

Explanation:
The current GIF (Graphics Interchange Format) standard is GIF89a. 

It supports transparencies, animation and interlacing. GIF format only supports 256 colors. GIF is best suited for logos, icons, and clipart. Transparent GIFs are very popular in web design. They allow a logo or an image to be displayed. Browser safe palettes consists of 216 colors. These colors are displayed the same way in any browser on any operating system platform.


Question:
Which AT modem command hangs up the modem?

Explanation:
ATH

ATH - Hangs up modem
ATZ  - Resets modem to power up defaults
ATDT - Dials number as a tone 
ATDP - Dials number as a pulse
ATA - Answers incoming call manually


Question:
Which two TCP/IP utilities are the most similar in function?

Explanation:
Ping and Tracert

Both are used to verify the ability to connect to a remote host. Ping simply lets you know the connection was good. Tracert also lets you know the number of hops and the IP address of the routers the packet passes through to reach the destination.


Explanation:
L2TP

Layer Two Tunneling Protocol tunnels data through the Internet but relies on a technology called IPSec for encryption.


Question:
How many Web-safe colors are available to design and create web graphics?

Explanation:
216

Browser safe palettes consists of 216 colors. These colors are displayed the same way in any browser on any operating system platform.


Explanation:
PERL

Two most popular types of server side scripts standards are CGI ( Common Gateway Interface) and ISAPI (Internet Server Application Programming Interface). CGI scripts can be written in many programming languages. PERL (Practical Extraction and Report Language) and C are probably the most popular for writing CGI scripts.


Question:
CGI is parsed on which of the following?

Explanation:
Server

Common Gateway Interface is a program language that runs on servers and provides a means to customize output to the user. It is server-based and performs all operations on the server (versus ActiveX and Java applets, which run on the client). Because a process must be initiated each time the program is run, CGI tends to be server-intensive.


Question:
With a 56 Kps connection, how would it take to download 7000 bytes of data?

Explanation:
1 second 

56000 bits per second / 8 bits per byte = 7000 bytes per second. In reality it would take a bit longer considering that the data packet involved is not alone. It has been joined by data headers and trailers that are unimportant for I-Net+. For instance, at the Data Link layer, framing is used to encapsulate the data packet with control information for transmission on a local network. At the network level, routers use the logical address in a network layer header to determine the next hop router to forward the packet to.

But, of the choices listed 1 second is the best choice and the formula above is the formula that should be used.


Question:
What would be the best choice for a 10 Mbps connection to your office?

Explanation:
T3

A 56 Kbs modem is obviously too slow. In fact if you used a bank of 56 Kbs modems and bundled all of their bandwith together into one connection you would need about 180 modems to give you the required 10 Mbs. ISDN would provide a connection speed of 128 Kbs, far below the required 10 Megabits required. T1 also would be too slow. Below is a list of some connections and their speeds.

T3 = 45 Mbps
T1 = 1.544 Mbps 
ISDN = 128 Kbps


Question:
Which protocol gives you higher download speed than upload speed?

Explanation:
ADSL 

ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line) provides reasonably fast upload transmission speeds (up to 640 Kbps) and very fast download speeds (up to 9 Mbps).


SelectionD:
102.54.94.97     winners.examdrill.com          # source server

Explanation:
03-c3-a1-f2-34-c4

213.122.10.10  ---  This  is an IP address.
102.54.94.97    winners.examdrill.com   # source server --- This is a host file entry.
03:c3:f2:34:c4  --- This one is only 5 bytes long.

MAC addresses are 6 byte hexidecimal numbers. You may see the printed with colons or spaces separating the bytes. 

Try running Winipcfg (if you're using Windows 95 or Windows 98). Your MAC address will be dispalyed as the "Adapter Address".


Explanation:
ATZ

The instructions from your computer to you modem which configure it, dial it and decide how it handles data transmission are referred to as the Hayes Command Set. As more players enter the modem market and modems become more sophisticated, the set has been extended and occassionaly a manufacturer will alter the command set on their modem. 

ATZ  - Resets modem to power up defaults
ATDT - Dials number as a tone 
ATDP - Dials number as a pulse
ATA - Answers incoming call manually
ATH - Hangs up modem


Question:
Where do ISPs connect to form the Internet backbone?

Explanation:
NAP (Network Access Points)

A NAP is  a network exchange facility where Internet Service Providers (ISPs) connect with each other. The NAPs  determine how traffic is routed and are also the points of most Internet congestion.


Question:
How long would it take to download 7K file using a 56K modem connection?

Explanation:
1.25 Seconds

7000 bytes equals 56000 bits (1 byte = 8 bits). You may be tempted to think you could just divide 56,000 by 56,000 and it would be 1 second. However, it's not that simple. There is always a certain amount of additional bits involved in dividing the data into packets and also for error correction. Under ideal conditions, the minimum amount of time would be 1.25 seconds


Question:
Networks with a B class IP address supports how many host?

Explanation:
65,534

An IP address is a 32 bit binary number that is divided into 4 octets. Depending on the class of the address it will have one, two or three octets dedicated to the host portion. if it is a class A address then there will be three octets or 24 bits dedicated to the host portion. Class B uses the last two octets and Class C only the last octet. Look at the following formula.
 
Class A  	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 24th power - 2 unusable addresses = 16,777,214
Class B	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 16th power - 2 unusable addresses = 65,534
Class C 	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 8th power - 2 unusable addresses = 254


SelectionA:
A segment between routers using a protocol other than TCP/IP .

SelectionB:
A section of the network that is broken.

SelectionC:
A router that has been rendered unusable by a virus.

SelectionD:
A segment that has too many broadcast storms.

Explanation:
A segment between routers using something other than TCP/IP .

A way to protect networks from TCP/IP attacks like SYN floods and ping of death attacks. These attacks cannot get past the non-TCP/IP zone. For example, if an internal segment is running IPX/SPX the PING or SYN attacks will not be able to pass through the dead zone and therefore will be effectively stopped.


Question:
What is the server called that enables a range of private IP addresses on internal intranet, while still allowing user to access the Internet?

Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation Service)

NAT is an Internet standard that enables a LAN to use one set of IP addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external traffic. Proxy servers use NAT.


Explanation:
Internet

The Internet does not require an access control list therefore it is open for everyone. 

VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) provide a high degree of security. Intranets are insulated from the Internet (or should be). Security problems are limited to internal users, as long as proper precautions to protect it from external attack from the Internet. Extranets general have security measures such as VPNs and firewalls in place.


Question:
Which network device is not affected by a virus?

Explanation:
Hub

Viruses cannot infect devices that do not run software.


Question:
Which two physical interfaces port PPP? (CHOOSE TWO)

Explanation:
Synchronous Serial 
Asynchronous Serial 

PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is a data-link protocol that can be used over either asynchronous serial (dial-up) or synchronous serial (ISDN) media and that uses the LCP (Link Control Protocol) to build and maintain data-link connections.


Question:
What browser plug-in allows objects to be rotated in three dimensions?

Explanation:
QuickTime VR

QuickTime images are saved in three tracks which could be played individually. This allows for 3D rotation of objects.


Question:
You are going to set up over the Internet lectures for a high school for students to use, but are utilizing a very slow connection. What would be the best format?

Explanation:
Real Media 

Windows Media Player's advanced filtering technology makes video look good, even if you resize your window or stream over a slow connection


Question:
Which of the following image file formats was designed to take the place of GIF (Graphics Interchange Format)?

Explanation:
PNG 

PNG (Portable Network Graphics) PNG supports transparency and interlacing and offers better
compression than GIF. PNG also supports partial transparency.


Question:
Which image format supports transparency?

Explanation:
GIF 89a

GIF 89a supports both transparency and animation.


Question:
Which technology provides an interactive 3-D environment?

Explanation:
VRML

VRML (Virtual Reality Modeling Language) is a  language is used to create 3 dimensional objects. VRML 2.0 can create animated 3D objects and can have background audio.


Question:
A browser plug-in that supports animation, audio, video and user actions on both Windows and Mac platforms is called what?

Explanation:
Shockwave

Shockwave is a Netscape plug-in or an ActiveX control that allows animation, video and audio.


Question:
The subnet mask is used to determine which of the following?

Explanation:
Network address and Host ID 

A subnet mask divides the total number of hosts available for one network into a smaller number available for a number of networks. The subnet mask value is based upon the class of network you have.


Question:
Which of the following statements are correct?

SelectionA:
TCP is connection oriented and UDP is connectionless

SelectionB:
Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented

SelectionC:
UDP is connection oriented and TCP is connectionless

SelectionD:
Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented

Explanation:
TCP is connection oriented and UDP is connectionless

Connectionless Data transfer occurs without the creating of a virtual circuit. No overhead, best-effort delivery, it is not considered reliable. 

Connection-oriented Data transfer method sets up a virtual circuit before any data is transferred. It uses acknowledgments and flow control for reliable data transfer.


Question:
Which remote access protocol is not supported by IPX?

Explanation:
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol)

SLIP is a TCP/IP only protocol. PPP has a number of advantages over SLIP; it is designed to operate both over asynchronous connections and bit-oriented synchronous systems and it can configure connections to a remote network dynamically, and test that the link is usable. PPP can be configured to encapsulate different network layer protocols (such as IP, IPX, or AppleTalk) by using the appropriate Network Control Protocol (NCP).


Explanation:
A certificate server

The certificates are used for data encryption and also for authenticating web sites.


Question:
What bandwidth technology uses a 53 byte cell?

Explanation:
ATM Asynchronous Transfer Mode uses 53-byte cells for all transmissions.


Question:
Microsoft's implementation of the Web Server is called what?


Question:
What is directly connected to the Internet Backbone.

Explanation:
NAP

Short for Network Access Point, a public network exchange facility where Internet Service Providers (ISPs) can connect with one another in peering arrangements. The NAPs are a key component of the Internet backbone because the connections within them determine how traffic is routed. They are also the points of most Internet congestion.


Question:
Which network hardware device will improve network performance?

Explanation:
Router

Of course in given situations each of the choices listed would improve network performance. But routers make inteligent decisions about where to send packets based on their network layer address. They increase security by isolating diferent segments of a network. They also reduce trafic by filtering out unwanted trafic or broadcast trafic.


Question:
What is the specification known as that connects the users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium, such as a single DSL line, wireless device or cable modem?

Explanation:
PPPoE
  
Acronym for Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet. PPPoE relies on two widely accepted standards: PPP and Ethernet. PPPoE is a specification for connecting the users on an Ethernet to the Internet through a common broadband medium, such as a single DSL line, wireless device or cable modem. All the users over the Ethernet share a common connection, so the Ethernet principles supporting multiple users in a LAN combine with the principles of PPP, which apply to serial connections.


Question:
Your company has recently started marketing in France. Your customer support staff reports a number of emails from French users complaining about the speed of the site. What would improve the download times in France?

Explanation:
create a mirror site in France 

Creating a mirror site that is serviced by a server in Europe would improve download speeds. The biggest bottleneck for international users is frequently intercontinental bandwidth. 

Increasing your server bandwidth will not impact the bandwidth running between the two continents. 

Creating a website in French may make your French customers happier, but will not speed their download times. 

RAID 1 (Redundant Array of Independent Disks level 1) is also known as mirroring, however, it generally refers to mirroring data on hard disks, not on web sites. Changing to RAID 1 would not affect download times.


Question:
Client B accesses resources in the Exam Drill LAN. He does this using a 56 Kps modem connection to the Internet. The communication is encryted with IPSec and tunneled with L2TP. What type of connection is this?

Explanation:
VPN

Virtual Private Networks are built using PPTP or other tunneling protocols to provide encrypted (secure) communications across the Internet. They are used for connecting two different company sites such as with an Extranet, or for allowing a remote user to securely access a site.


Question:
What type of network technology enables a range of private IP addresses on internal intranet, while still allowing user to access Internet?

Explanation:
NAT

NAT takes a private IP address for a network client and converts it to a public IP address for use on the Internet. This permits a large number of users to access the Internet using a single registered IP address. This is also called a proxy


Question:
Which modem command checks to see if th modem is configured correctly?

Explanation:
AT

To test the modem, give the command: AT ..(in capital letters), then press the Return key. The modem should reply: OK ..if you don't see an "OK" the modem isn't working. This could be because you chose the wrong baud rate, or because the modem isn't connected to the correct port, or because the modem isn't working. Is it plugged in? If the modem isn't working, try to borrow a working modem and try again.


Question:
What is the total bandwidth of all channels on a PRI circuit?

Explanation:
1.544 Mbps

ISDN can either be Basic Rate ISDN (BRI) or Primary Rate ISDN (PRI). BRI is two 64 Kbps B Channels for data and one 16 Kbps D Channel for link management.

PRI is 23 B Channels and 1 D Channel in the US or 30 B Channel and 1 D Channel in Europe. Each of these channels are 64 Kbps.


Question:
Liam is having problems viewing pages on a particular website. Sometimes his browser displays the proper page, but sometimes his browser displays pages that seem to be out of date. 

The website's help desk has told Liam that the problems he is experiencing with their website are related to web page caching. Liam checks the Temporary Internet File settings in Microsoft Internet Explorer 5.0, and it is set to check for newer versions automatically. How would it be best for Liam to change his settings?

SelectionA:
Change his Temporary Internet File settings to never check for new versions

SelectionB:
Change his Temporary Internet File settings to check for new versions every time he starts the browser.

SelectionC:
Change his Temporary Internet File settings to check for new versions every visit to the page.

SelectionD:
Change his Temporary Internet File settings to check for new versions once a day.

Explanation:
Change his Temporary Internet File settings to check for new versions every visit to the page. 

Temporary Internet Settings are Microsoft's term for caching web pages. They determine how often stored web content should be updated on the client's computer. Liam's current setting (Check for Newer Versions Automatically) will check for new content only when Liam is returning to a page viewed on a previous day. Internet Explorer 5.x will monitor how often the page changes, and will refresh the content accordingly. 

Liam should change his settings to check for new versions every visit to the page. This will ensure the content displayed by the browser is the most up-to-date. If he changes his settings to never check for new versions, he will always be using the content stored on his computer, and the information will never refresh. If he changes his settings to check for new versions every time he starts his browser, then the information will not refresh until he closes his browser and re-opens it. There is not an option to check for new versions once a day.


Question:
In what way are Boolean operators helpful during an advanced Internet search?

SelectionA:
They narrow searches by using IF / THEN statements.

SelectionB:
They allow the browser to search multiple engines simultaneously.

SelectionC:
They narrow searches by using AND, OR, and NOT statements.

SelectionD:
Boolean operators are only useful for simple searches.

Explanation:
They narrow searches by using AND, OR, and NOT statements. 

Boolean operators are used to narrow or restrict searches to specifically combined or excluded terms using the AND, OR, and NOT statements. Some search engines also use the NEAR operator and allow you to specify a phrase by enclosing it in quotation marks. You can also use parentheses to group operator phrases. Boolean operators do not include IF/THEN statements. 

Searches using Boolean operators are considered advanced searches. A simple search for a single word would not benefit from using Boolean operators. Boolean operators do not allow you to search multiple search engines simultaneously. However, there are some meta search sites that offer that feature.


Question:
MIME is an acronym of which of the following?

Explanation:
MIME is short for Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

MIME is aa specification for formatting non-ASCII messages so that they can be sent over the Internet. Most email clients now support MIME, which enables them to send and receive graphics, audio, and video files via the Internet mail system. In addition, MIME supports messages in character sets other than ASCII. 

There are many predefined MIME types, such as GIF graphics files and PostScript files. It is also possible to define your own MIME types. 

In addition to e-mail applications, Web browsers also support various MIME types. This enables the browser to display or output files that are not in HTML format. 

MIME was defined in 1992 by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). A version, called S/MIME, supports encrypted messages


Question:
With which of the following can cookies can be set?

Explanation:
JavaScript
Http header

The purpose of cookies is to remember certain information about the user when the user accesses the web site. To set the cookie, the web server uses “Set cookie” command in the HTTP header. Cookies can also be set with the JavaScript.


Explanation:
True

PHP Hypertext Preprocessor is a server-side, HTML embedded scripting language used to create dynamic Web pages. In an HTML document, PHP script is enclosed within special PHP tags. 

Because PHP is embedded within tags, the author can jump between HTML and PHP instead of having to rely on heavy amounts of code to output HTML. And, because PHP is executed on the server, the client cannot view the PHP code. PHP is specifically mentioned in Comptia's I-Net+ list of objectives.


Question:
Which language allows for the creation of platform independent executables?

Explanation:
Java

Java programs can run on any platform that has a compatible Java Virtual Machine installed on it. 
C++ and Visual Basic programs must be compiled for the specific Operating System your machine is running.
Perl, VBScript, and JavaScript are scripting languages and are not compiled into executables.


Question:
What is Microsoft's preferred server-side scripting language?

Explanation:
Acitive Server Pages (ASP)

You can use several interpreted scripting languages with ASP, including VBScript, JScript, and JavaScript. However, ASP is optimized to work with VBScript and ActiveX components. This is why it's Microsoft's preferred server-side scripting language. If you need to have ASP, you must use IIS.


Question:
A user with a 128 Kbps ISDN modem will take about how many seconds to download a 100 Kilobyte file?

Explanation:
8

128 Kilobits per seconds is (divided by 8) is 16 Kilobytes per second. 100 Kilobyte file / 16 Kilobytes per second  = 6.25 Seconds. But if you add the headers and trailers that are added to a packet during transmission the closest answer here is 8. If only the actual 100 Kilobyte file were sent over the wire  it would not know where it came from or where it was supposed to go. It would also have no security being, as it were, naked on the wire.


Question:
You created a form on your site that takes the data from the user and sends it to the server. What is the most effective way to make sure the data is entered in a specific format?

Explanation:
Validate on the browser with JavaScript 

Javascript is a strong tool for validating forms before sending the content. The validation can take place as the visitor enters values, or all at once upon clicking the submit button after entering the values.

Each validation function can easily be customized to fit the needs of the fields they are checking.


Question:
A Unicode character set uses how many bits to represent each character?

Explanation:
16 

Unicode is a 16-bit character encoding that contains all of the characters in common use in the world's major languages. Unicode provides an unambiguous representation of text across a range of scripts, languages and platforms.


Question:
Which allows multiple "virtual Servers", each using different DNS names, to be resolved to the same IP address?

Explanation:
HTTP 1.1

HTTP - HyperText Transfer Protocol, the client-server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web for the exchange of HTML documents. It conventionally uses port 80. The current version is HTTP 1.1 One of the features of HTTP 1.1 is the “Host Header”. Host header makes it possible to have multiple virtual servers with the same IP address.


Question:
Based on speed and cost, which Internet bandwidth link type would be the best choice
for a small ISP serving 100 dial-up users?

Explanation:
T1

The beauty of a fractional T1 connection is that you can rent more channels if you need it. A T1 connection has 24 different channels each is 64 Kb (24 X 64 Kb = 1.536 Mbps). You may notice that a T1 is actually 1.54 Mbps those extra 8 Kbps are overhead for managing the connection. 

If we divide 1.536Mbps by 100 users each user is only allotted about 15 Kbps for their connection. But ISPs can assume that not all of their users will be online at the same time. If this connection speeds are inadaquate the ISP can simply rent more T1 channels.

A T1 line runs at 1.544 megabits per second and will support about 50 to 75 simultaneous users. A DS3 (a.k.a. T3) line operates at 45 megabits per second and can support several thousand simultaneous users. This would be overkill for a small ISP.

56 Kb and ISDN is too slow for even a small ISP.


Question:
Which connection operates at speeds of 51.85 Mbps?

Explanation:
OC-1

Short for Optical Carrier, specifies the speed of fiber optic networks conforming to the SONET standard. OC-3 (three times the speed of OC-1) operates at speeds of 155.52 MBPS - Fiber optic standard in use today.


Question:
Which of the following best describes DSL?

SelectionA:
DSL stands for Digital Service Line, a direct Internet connection method that uses cable TV network lines and a cable modem.

SelectionB:
DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, a direct Internet connection method that uses digital phone lines and a DSL modem.

SelectionC:
DSL stands for Digital Serial Line, a dial-up Internet connection method that uses digital phone lines and a DSL modem.

SelectionD:
DSL stands for Digital Service Line, a dial-up Internet connection method that uses cable TV network lines and a cable modem.

Explanation:
DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, a direct Internet connection method that uses digital phone lines and a DSL modem. 

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) is a high-speed continuous (direct) method of Internet access. It connects to the Internet through a DSL modem and uses digital phone lines for transmission. DSL connections can operate at rates of 512 Kbps to 10 Mbps, depending on factors such as network traffic.


Question:
Which uses a fiber optic line to connect ISPs to the Internet at 45 Mbps?

Explanation:
T3

Below are some connection types and their relative speeds:
T1 	1.54 Mbps
E1 	2.048 Mbps This is the European standard comparable to T1.
T3 	45 Mbps - Also called DS-3 
OC-1 	51.8 Mbps - OC stands for optical carrier.
OC-3  	155.52 Mbps - This is the fiber optic standard in use today.


Question:
Which Internet bandwidth technology is widely used as an Internet backbone, but rarely used to connect ISPs to the backbone?

Explanation:
ATM

Primary National Service Providers collectively operate what is often referred to as the Public Internet Backbone.  Each Primary National Service Provider operates one or more Wide Area Networks, typically using either Frame Relay and/or ATM. Frame Relay is also used for slower connections.


Explanation:
Connectionless 

This means that the packets are sent on  their way without a guarentee that they will arrive. This decreases the overhead (the bits that encapsulate and accompany the data payload like the envelope and packaging in a snail-mail delivery) but this means that User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is considered "unreliable" as well as fast.


Question:
Which network device allows you to communicate with a host that uses a different protocol stack?

Explanation:
Gateway

A gateway is used to connect networks with different protocols like TCP/IP network and IPX/SPX networks. If you only have NetBEUI protocol on your network and need to access the Internet (TCP/IP is the protocol on the Internet), you would need to use a Gateway.


Question:
You use a proxy server for all of your company's 150 employees to connect to a web site. The web site's server keeps a record of all IP addresses that connect to the site. How many of your company's IP addresses will be logged onto the site's server?

SelectionA:
Max of 50 IP addresses from each Proxy server

SelectionC:
Only the IP address of your company's proxy server.

SelectionD:
The proxy server and all routers in your company's network.

Explanation:
Only the IP address of your company's proxy server.

Proxy servers use Network Address Translation (NAT) to allow many PCs to connect to the Internet, but only the proxy server's IP address is seen by the Internet.


Question:
Which tunneling protocol supports flow control and encryption?

Explanation:
PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol)

PPTP is used to create virtual private networks. It supports encryption and flow control.  The two next best answers would be TCP which supports flow control but not encryption and L2TP which like PPTP is a tunneling protocol but does not support encryption. L2TP uses IPSec for encryption.


Question:
You cannot log onto a remote site. You made sure you are typing in the correct password. What would you try next?

SelectionA:
Hit the caps lock and retype your password

SelectionB:
Hit the scroll lock and retype your password

SelectionC:
Hold the control key and type your password

Explanation:
Hit the caps lock and retype your password 

Always seek the simple solution first. Most passwords are case sensitive. If the caps lock is inadvertently activated you may have typed the correct password in the wrong case.


Explanation:
VBScript

VB script is a proprietary script from Microsoft and can only be interpreted by Microsoft's Internet Explorer browsers.


SelectionA:
Common Object Request Broker Architecture

SelectionB:
Colored Object Request Barrier Architecture

SelectionD:
Custom Object Required Barter Architecture

Explanation:
Common Object Request Broker Architecture

Developers use CORBA to distribute applications across client-server networks. Instead of having hundreds of thousands of lines of code running on mainframe computers with dumb terminals, smaller, more robust applications that communicate between file servers and workstations are now necessary. To keep this distribution of applications simple, a plug-and- play architecture is necessary to distribute the client-server applications. The programmer then can write applications that work independently across platforms and networks. 

The idea behind CORBA is a software intermediary that handles and disperses access requests on data sets. This intermediary is referred to as an Object Request Broker (ORB). The ORB interacts and makes requests to differing objects. It sits on the host between the data and the application layer (that is, one level lower than the application layer (level 7 in the OSI model). An ORB negotiates between request messages from objects or object servers and the affiliated data sets. 

The goal of CORBA is to make programming easier by making CORBA- based applications highly portable. Developers now have a standardized set of facilities, as we shall see later, that they can issue on a host machine to retrieve or manipulate requested data. Using different databases and data files on one or more hosts will now go unnoticed by the user or the application. Applications become easy to integrate because the interfaces are identical.


Question:
Which of the following would you use to log on to an FTP site that requires username and password?

Explanation:
ftp://username:password@secure.website.com

After the protocol, namely ftp, username and password are separated by a colon. The password and server are separated by an ampersand (@).


Explanation:
DHCP server

DHCP is a server-based administration utility used to automatically assign IP addresses (among other configurations) to clients. It should never be implimented as a protection against unauthorized access.


Question:
What is it called when information is intercepted and used to impersonate a legitimate request for resources?

Explanation:
Spoofing

Spoofing is when someone, using a protocol analyzer or other device to intercept and decode packets sent to and from the server in order to find the account ID and password, impersonates an authorized user. The spoofer then will have unauthorized access to resources using an authorized identity.


Question:
What is the process called that verifies that your login and password are correct?

Explanation:
Authentication

Authentication is the process of verifying a person is who they claim to be. This is typically done by user IDs and a password. It is important to remember that PPP uses logon authentication but SLIP cannot.


Explanation:
X.509

X.509 is the most widely used standard for digital certificates.


Question:
Someone sends you a Ping packet that is over 65,536 bytes in size and your PC hangs?

Explanation:
Ping of Death

The Ping of Death is an attack in which your PC is caused to hang up or crash because someone sent it a Ping packet that it could not handle. Most operating systems and Ping utilities are aware of the Ping of Death now and have been patched to deal with it.


Explanation:
False

A Telnet session allows the user to interact with the remote server through the keyboard, much like if she were sitting at the server's console. This is very much a security risk.


Question:
Which of the following is an authentication protocol?

Explanation:
Kerberos

Kerberos is an authentication protocol designed to enable two parties to exchange private information across an otherwise open network.


Question:
What would you use to encrypt email using an encryption method with a private key and a public key?

Explanation:
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)
  
PGP is a technique for encrypting messages. PGP is one of the most common ways to protect messages on the Internet because it is effective, easy to use, and free. PGP is based on the public-key method, which uses two keys. One is a public key that you distribute to anyone from whom you want to receive a message. The other is a private key that you use to decrypt messages that you receive. To encrypt a message using PGP, you need the PGP encryption package, which is available for free from a number of sources. The official repository is at MIT.

The U.S. government thought PGP was so good it brought a lawsuit against its author, Phillip Zimmerman, for putting it in the public domain and making it available to enemies of the U.S. The U.S. lawsuit was dropped, but it is still illegal to use PGP in many other countries.


Explanation:
Certificate Authority

Certificate Authorities issue digital certificates to users that binds their identity to the certificate. It schedules expiry dates for certificates and revokes them when required, publishing the fact of the revocation to a Certificate Revocation List (CRL).


Question:
What command do you use to start an FTP session?

Explanation:
open

After you have started an FTP session you need to connect to a remote computer.  At the ftp> prompt type the command open followed by the hostname, which is the complete name of the remote computer or its IP address.  For example:

ftp> open ftp.microsoft.com <return>

For a complete list of FTP commands go to a command prompt and type FTP then press return then type HELP and press return again.


Question:
When surfing your browser receives the message “The server is not responding”. What could be the problem?

SelectionD:
An old version of the page is stored in cache.

Explanation:
The server is overloaded.

The server is overloaded and therefore is not responding.


Question:
How long does it take to download a 7,000 byte file at 56 Kbs?

Explanation:
1.25 seconds

56 Kilobits per second / 8 bits per byte = 7 Kilobytes per second 

Therefore, a 7000 byte file would take just over 1 second to be downloaded if one takes into consideration the overhead. Overhead is the extra headers and trailers which are attached to the data "payload". These headers and trailers are called encapsulation and are necessary for routing (destination information), filtering or security as in the case of tunneling with a Virtual Private Network.


Question:
Which network hardware device protects a server from malicious attacks over the Internet?

Explanation:
Firewall

Firewalls are used to prevent unauthorized access from the external network such as Internet to your local network. Gateway, Proxy and RAS (Remote Access Server) servers can be used as firewalls but they are not by themselves firewalls.


Explanation:
Internet

The Internet is simply the biggest network with the most users and also the most potential for virus infection, hacking and malicious attacks.


Question:
How many bits are in an IP Version 4 (IPv4) address?

Explanation:
32 bits

Each IP address (version 4) is 32 bits long. MAC addresses are 48 bits long.


Question:
What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?

Explanation:
LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is an Internet protocol that email programs use to look up contact information from a server. LDAP was designed to adapt a complex enterprise directory system (called X.500) to the modern Internet. A directory server runs on a host computer on the Internet, and various client programs that understand the protocol can log into the server and look up entries. X.500 is too complex to support on desktops and over the Internet, so LDAP was created to provide this service with lower overhead.

Most PCs already have an LDAP-aware client installed on your computer. Most current email clients are set up to search an LDAP directory for email addresses. These include Outlook, Eudora and Netscape Communicator.


Question:
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 194.206.42.7

Explanation:
255.255.255.0

An address is Class A if the first octet begins with 1-126. It has a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 
An address is Class B if the first octet begins with  128-191. It has a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 
An address is Class C if the first octet begins with 192-223. It has a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 
An address is Class D if the first octet begins with  224-239
An address is Class E if the first octet begins with  240-255


Explanation:
Unencrypted text file on client 

Cookies are always stored on the client’s machine in unencrypted form. To set the cookie the web server uses “Set cookie” command in the HTTP header. Cookies can also be set with the JavaScript. An “expiration” date and time of the cookies can be set with the expires attribute. When expiration date has been reached, the cookie will be automatically deleted from your computer. If no expiration date is set, the cookie will expire when the browser is closed.


Question:
What is the protocol and what is the second part of the following network address:

172.16.0.254, mask=255.255.0.0

SelectionD:
Public IP addresses and directed broadcast

Explanation:
Private IP address and node number  

You can use certain IP addresses privately within you own Intranet as long as they are not seen by the global community. These addresses are listed below:

• 10.0.0.0
• 172.16.0.0
• 192.168.0.0


Question:
Your company's corporate headquarters is in Houston. You recently opened a second office in Seattle. You anticipate opening a third office in two years. The second office will need access to secure company information, but must limit costs. Which network would be most appropriate?

Explanation:
VPN 

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) combines the flexibility, reliability, and economy of the Internet with the security of a private dedicated network. Many VPNs use the Internet as the "backbone" or main connection trunk, so the backbone is basically in public domain and is not secure. Network protocol "tunneling" refers to the technique of encapsulating one protocol within another protocol. This is often done to send a LAN protocol over a network backbone that uses a different protocol, but is also done to send encrypted data over a public network. 

A VPN is an encrypted "private tunnel" across the Internet. Many hosts can be interconnected into a VPN, using the Internet as the connection medium, and still have the privacy they would have if they were all connected on a private LAN. This is the most appropriate type of network since it is relatively low-cost, but provides security. 

A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network that is implemented in between computers in a small geographical area. Usually computers are connected by wires to hubs and hubs to servers. Since the second office is at a great distance, a LAN is not the most appropriate network type. 

A WAN (Wide Area Network) is a network that spans a large geographical area (like in the scenario posed). WANs can be connected on demand, or permanently connected. WANs are typically very expensive because lines used to connect the network are leased. This would provide security, but doesn't meet the cost requirements. 

An Intranet is a collection of information that is accessed through the same software used to access the Internet. However, the information is only available internally, to company employees. Intranets need to be implemented on a physical network (such as a VPN, LAN, or WAN).


Question:
Which of the following DNS servers do not contain HOST records?

Explanation:
Caching

A DNS caching server is a temporary store for DNS lookup requests. It queries the authoratative server and caches the replies. It does not store permanent records and is only used to reduce the load of repeated DNS lookup requests to the main DNS server. It also speeds up the response to browser requests as the results are stored in the cache.


Question:
Which of the following describes the correct format of a URL?


Question:
What can you use to reduce broadcast storms?

Explanation:
Use a router

DHCP and WINS don't apply here. DHCP is for automatically assigning network settings to clients and WINS is for NetBIOS name resolution. A Bridge passes Broadcasts and would be of no help. 

A router, however, does not pass broadcasts but rather "routes" intelligently to a destination. If the destination is not known and no default gateway (which is also a destination) is specified the packet will be dropped.


Question:
What is the FQDN of http://files.sales.wigits.com/help/files?

Explanation:
files.sales.wigits.com

A FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name) starts with a host name and continues all the way up to the top-level domain name. In the above example http is the protocol designation. files.sales.wigits.com is FQDN or the name of host and /help/files is the path.


Question:
The data transfer technology that automatically transfers updated information to a web client is called?

Explanation:
Push technology

Push technology is like having your newspaper delivered to your doorstep every day. You do not have to go out to the corner newspaper machine and buy it, it arrives automatically. Push technology is where data is automatically delivered to your computer. 

In contrast, Pull technology requires you to go and get the data. When you enter the URL in your browser and click the Go button, the browser goes out on the web and "pulls" the web page into your PC.


Question:
How do you troubleshoot a user that cannot receive mail?

Explanation:
Check the POP3 entry.

POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is the protocol used for receiving e-mail from the server. SMTP is used for sending e-mail to the server and for transferring it around the Internet.


Explanation:
X12

X12 is the ANSI approved standard for EDI (Electronic Data Interchange)


Question:
You have moved the web service to port 600. What syntax must a user use in their browser to access your site - "yoursite.com"?

Explanation:
http://yoursite.com:600

HTTP defaults to port 80 and you don't need to type the port number as long as it is the default. However, if you change to a different port number, the new number must follow the domain name.


Question:
Your company wants to allow clients to log in and check the status of their orders. What must you set up?

Explanation:
Extranet

An Extranet enables an organization to grant certain outsiders limited access to internal resources. Extranets may be used for checking the status of orders, checking inventories, retrieving documents, etc.


Question:
You want to create an address book. You want to update it and all employees need to have immediate access without downloading. Which should you create?

Explanation:
Directory Server

The standard method of organizing entries in directory servers in x.500. The standard protocol for directory servers is LDAP(Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)


Question:
What does the Channel Definition Format do?

SelectionA:
Makes a site popular with search engines

SelectionD:
Creates a channel for accessing suggestions from a site visit.

Explanation:
Implements Push technology 

Channel Definition Format was developed by Microsoft that allows Web publishers to push content at users. When a user subscribes to a CDF channel, the user will automatically receive new content posted on the channel's Web server. 

Pull technology - on which most of the web is based - a user requests data before it is sent down.


Question:
A user gets an error message. How can you find out what browser they are using?


Question:
To send an executable file through email from one platform to another, you can use:

Explanation:
BinHex

BinHex is an encoding method that converts binary data into ASCII characters. Any file, be it a graphics file, a text file, or a binary executable file, can be converted to BinHex. BinHex is valuable for transferring files from one platform to another because nearly all computers can handle ASCII files. Many e-mail programs include a BinHex encoder and decoder for sending and receiving attachments.


Question:
A(n) __________ is an SMTP server that sends e-mails it receives to a list of e-mail recipients, for a "discussion group"?

Explanation:
List server

List servers are e-mail servers that use special software,  a special e-mail address, and a list containing the e-mail addresses of people who want to be part of the discussion group.

e-mail that is sent to the special e-mail address for the server, is forwarded to members on the list.


Question:
What is an easy way to add search features to your site?

Explanation:
Index Server

Microsoft Index Server allows you to perform full-text searches and retrieve all types of information from any Web browser, in just about any format, with just the click of a mouse or button.


Question:
Which of the following has the least impact on apparent web site performance?

Explanation:
RAM in the client 

Of the available choices, RAM in the Client would have the least impact on web site performance. However, RAM in the server would help the server serve up web pages faster. Cache size allows web pages to be store in local cache and minimizes redownloading the same document each time the user switches to it.

Client connection speed determines how quickly web pages are downloaded to the client. This results in an "apparent" web site performance increase.


Question:
You have no connection to the network. What can you test on your browser?

Explanation:
Client side script

You do not need a connection to the Internet to run and test web pages if you have the web page available locally. Client side scripts are contained in the web page and are interpreted by the browser. Perl and CGI scripts are interpreted on the server.


Question:
You get a "Destination unreachable" error when trying to access a web site.

Explanation:
Problem with the Gateway

If the network specified in the Internet destination field of a Datagram is unreachable, the gateway may send a "destination unreachable" message to the Internet source host of the Datagram.


Question:
Which step is most susceptible to network congestion?

SelectionB:
Transmitting the response from the server to the client.

Explanation:
Transmitting the response from the server to the client.

The process of transmitting the files across the Internet and the various routers, switches, and phone lines in the most susceptible to delays.


Question:
What type of server would you use if you have an internal intranet and wanted to provide directory service to it and allow the users to access the Internet?

Explanation:
X.500 directory server

The standard method of organizing entries in directory servers in x.500. The standard protocol for directory servers is LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)


Question:
A group of sites that relate to a common interest with each site posting banner ads or links to the other sites is a ________?

Explanation:
Webring

Webrings are group of sites that are related by some common interest. Typically, each site agrees to post banner ads or links to the other sites. This helps to increase traffic to all the sites.


Question:
When you attempt to reach a web page you get an "Error 404" message. What does this mean?

SelectionB:
Your browser has had 404 errors since it was installed.

Explanation:
The file does not exist on the server.

The "Error 404" message usually means:
- The page you're looking for has been moved. 
- The page you're looking for has been deleted. 
- The address you've entered is not complete. 
- The address you've entered is not valid.


Question:
If you try to go to a web site and the browser receives the message "The server is not responding", what could be the problem?

Explanation:
The server is overloaded

HTTP servers have a limit on the number of the simultaneous connections. When the limit is reached, you get this error message. The message varies depending on the server. Apache server sends "Server Unavailable". A misconfigured router or if DNS is setup incorrectly, you will most likely get "Page cannot be displayed".


Question:
Which remote access protocol will not support IPX?

Explanation:
SLIP

SLIP only supports TCP/IP. All of the other listed protocols support IPX.


Question:
What is the only protocol you can use with SLIP?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

SLIP (Serial Line Internet protocol) is an old protocol that only supports TCP/IP and has no security features.


Question:
Which network hardware device connects dissimilar network topologies into an Internetwork?

Explanation:
Router

This question could be a little confusing, as both a router and a bridge could be used to connect two network segments with different topologies. You could use a bridge to connect an Ethernet 10Base2 and an Ethernet 10BaseT segment together to form an Internetwork or "Internet". This scenario would represent two different "topologies". However, the  i-NET+ exam is about the Internet and the Internet is built on routers. Of the choices given, "router" is the most appropriate.


Question:
What is the subnet masks for classes A addresses?

Explanation:
255.0.0.0

Or  11111111.0000000.0000000.00000000 in binary.  A subnet mask is a 32-bit address mask used in IP to identify the bits of an IP address that are used for the subnet address. Using a mask, the router does not need to examine all 32 bits, only those selected by the mask.


Question:
Detect the network ID and the node ID in the following IP address. 

128.252.144.84

Explanation:
128.252.0.0 and 144.84

This is a class B address. Therefore, the node is represented by the last two octets.


Question:
What class of IP address provide the least number of hosts?

Explanation:
Class C

The first three bytes of a Class C network address are dedicated to the network portion of the address, with only one byte (or eight bits) remaining for the node address. The format is:

Network Octet - Network Octet - Network Octet - Node Octet

An example of a class C address would be 192.168.52.100.  Only the 100 (binary 0110 0100). The maximum amount of Class C addresses are 254.

Class D addresses are reserved for multicasts.


Question:
What will the following search return? (Choose three.)

dance and ((tango or waltz) or (Russian and African))

Explanation:
dance tango
dance waltz
dance Russian African

Searches, like mathematical equations, are worked from the inside out. Start with the innermost parentheses: tango or waltz. " Tango" or "waltz" may be included in the search. The next innermost parentheses are: Russian and African. Because there is an "and" between these two, you will always see these two words together. 

Looking at the outer parentheses, you can see that there is an "or" between. So the search could include the words "tango" or "waltz" OR the search could include "Russian African". The search would not include "tango Russian African" or "waltz Russian African." 

Moving outside of the parentheses, dance has an "and" after it. This tells us that dance will always be included in the search. So the search will return "dance tango", "dance waltz", and "dance Russian African". 

The search would not include "dance tango Russian African", "dance waltz Russian African", "dance Russian", or "dance African."


Question:
A web page that you often use for reference loads slowly. What can you do?

SelectionC:
Use minimum security settings on your browser.

Explanation:
Increase cache size on browser setting. 

Then you will be loading the web page from the local browser cache instead of from accross slower WAN lines.


Question:
You upgrade your legacy e-mail client that is backward compatible, but you cannot access your old messages. What should you do?

Explanation:
Import your messages

When you upgrade your old messages will still be in the folders linked to the older version of your e-mail client. The best option is to import the messages to the new folder from the old folder.


Question:
How can you ensure security and exclude directories from searches on a web server?

SelectionA:
Add the directory name you do not wish to have searched to the exclude_search.dat file.

SelectionB:
Add exclude.txt to the top of the directory you do not wish to have searched.

SelectionC:
Add nosearch.txt to the bottom of the directory that you do not wish to have searched.

SelectionD:
Add robots.txt to the end of a directory that you do not wish to have searched.

Explanation:
Add robots.txt to the end of a directory that you do not wish to have searched. 

By adding robots.txt you will keep a directory from being searched while a search on a site is being performed.


Question:
You research regularly using a web site that has a lot of graphic images which are not relevant to your research. Web pages download slowly, so how can you make the web pages load faster?

SelectionC:
Configure the browser not to load images

Explanation:
Configure the browser not to load images.

The easiest way is to turn off the "load images" option in the browser.


Question:
You need to speed up the performance of your web site. One of the biggest problems is how slowly web graphics load. How can you fix this problem?

Explanation:
Reduce the size of graphics files. 

Use fewer colors or reduce the actual size of the image. Performance issues are often tied to graphics files being too large and taking too long to download over an ordinary modem connection. This design pitfall can be addressed by using compression algorithms on the graphic files, scaling the graphic down in size, selecting the optimal graphic file format for a particular image type, or reducing the number of colors in an image. 

Proxy servers speed access to cached web pagews on the client side but does not increase the performance on the server side.

Converting "graphics" files to jpeg would result in smaller file sizes and faster graphics downloads, but you certainly would not convert ALL files to jpeg.


Question:
You have updated your email application, and need access to 150 entries in your old address book. What should you do?

SelectionC:
Restore the addresses from a backup diskette.

SelectionD:
Copy the old address book to the same directory that as your email.

Explanation:
Import the address book.

For instance this is done in Microsoft Outlook using the menu File > Import / Export.


Question:
To search the Internet for the phrase "The rain in Spain" how would need to enter your query?

Explanation:
"The rain in Spain"

To retrieve an exact parsing, you need to enter the query in quotes.  
The+rain+in+Spain is incorrect because it would return any page that had the words "the" "in" "rain," "Spain," "of," and  located anyplace, not just in the exact order and placement. The same is true of Rain and Spain this would retrieve all the pages with both of the words Rain and Spain anywhere on the page.


Question:
You receive a timeout error when accessing a TCP port. What is the cause?

Explanation:
Firewall has port closed.

Firewalls filter traffic based on several criteria including port numbers. If access has been denied for a specific port (for instance 21 for FTP or 80 for HTTP) your request will time out.


Question:
A proxy server is connected to the Internet via a cable modem and can access the Internet. Your users cannot access the Internet, although the ISP verified that connection was available. What should you do to fix the problem?

Explanation:
Reset the cable modem

Some cable modems have a reset button that you can press. If not, then you can cycle the modem’s power off and then back on.


Question:
Liam's computer has an ISDN connection to the Internet. This is necessary for research he does for his job. What can Liam enable on his machine so that other users on his segment can access the Internet?

Explanation:
Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)

Is based on Network Address Translation (NAT) technology, although it does not have so many features. ICS allows several computers to share a single Internet connection. ICS can handle networks with clients (the computers on the LAN that share the Internet connection via ICS) running any operating system, as long as the OS supports the TCP/IP protocol.  The clients can have their TCP/IP information assigned manually, or they can run as DHCP clients, obtaining their TCP/IP settings from ICS' built-in DHCP server


Question:
An employee working next to you cannot connect to network resources even though your computer can. She asks you to tell her the address of the DHCP server your computer is configured to use. You go to a command prompt and type IPCONFIG and press return and see the following output. What command would have allowed you to see the DHCP server's IP address?

Explanation:
IPCONFIG /ALL

The I-Net+ objectives state that the test may include the following:
- WINIPCFG which is used to see TCP/IP configuration of your Windows 9x computer. It will display
your IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, hardware and MAC address. This is a GUI interface utility. 
- IPCONFIG has the same function as WINIPCFG, but is used on Windows NT, Windows 2000 and on Windows XP computers. This is a command prompt interface. For more detailed information use the switch IPCONFIG /ALL.
- IFCONFIG has the same function as the above two utilities but is used on UNIX machines. The "IF" is short for "interface".


Question:
Olivia has a dial-up connection to the Internet. She uses her 56 Kilobit per second analog modem to dial to her Internet service provider. The ISP router is also known as what?

Explanation:
The default gateway

To configure TCP/IP on a host, you need only three values: default gateway, IP address and subnet mask. The default gateway is the IP address of the router all data not intended for this network should go to. The remote network (remote from Olivia's computer) is the Internet.

The ISP will access the Internet through a Network Access point (NAP).


Question:
Which one of these ISDN terms refers to a native ISDN modem?

Explanation:
TA

TE1 (Terminal Equipment 1) is ISDN capable, using 4 wire cables, understands signaling, 2B+D. 

TE2 (Terminal Equipment 2) does not understand ISDN protocols and specifications. Typically TE2 an RS-232 or V.35 cable, to connect to a TA.

TA (Terminal Adapter) uses R reference point and S reference point. It can be thought of as the TE1 function group on behalf of a TE2.


Question:
How many B channels are in ISDN BRI (based on the standards for North America)?

Explanation:
2

In ISDN BRI there are only 2 B (Bearer) Channels, they are both 64Kbps each, the same speed as any other type of ISDN, just remember there are 2 B Channels at 64Kbps and one D (Data) channel at 16Kbps that regulates the data flow.


Question:
What ISDN protocol series as defined by the ITU-T work with the phone network and switching/signaling?

Explanation:
Series E and Q

These protocols deal with ISDN issues:
E Series specifies ISDN on the existing telephone network.
I Series specifies ISDN Concepts, terminology, and Services.
Q Series specifies switching and signaling.


Question:
Which one of these ISDN terms refers to a native ISDN telephone?

Explanation:
TE1

TE1 (Terminal Equipment 1) is  ISDN capable. and understands signaling it uses S reference point.

TE2 (Terminal Equipment 2) does not understand ISDN protocols and specifications. Needs TA (Terminal Adapter) to understand signalling.


Question:
Choose all of the statements that are true when considering ISDN.

SelectionC:
ISDN bandwidth is faster than with a T3 line

SelectionD:
replaces POTS (plain old telephone system)

Explanation:
voice and data capability

ISDN can handle both voice and data, the B channels can act as a 64Kbps data line or a digital voice line.


Question:
What is the total bandwidth of a BRI ISDN connection?

Explanation:
144 Kb

2 B channels at 64 Kb = 128 Kb
1 D channel at 16 Kb = 16 Kb

Total of 3 channels =144 Kb


Question:
What is one limitation of web browser cookies?

SelectionC:
There can be a maximum of 20 cookies per domain.

SelectionD:
There is no limit on the number of cookies.

Explanation:
There can be a maximum of 20 cookies per domain.

An “expiration” date and time of the cookies can be set with the expires attribute. When expiration date has been reached, the cookie will be automatically deleted from your computer. If no expiration is set, the cookie will expire when the browser is closed. A web site can set multiple cookies. The maximum number of cookies per domain is 20. The maximum size of cookies is 4 KB. When the limit on number of cookies is reached, the least recently used cookie is deleted.


Question:
Which browser setting that controls how the browser receives information and automatically downloads content from a web server?


Question:
Which one is not supported by most web browsers?

Explanation:
Telnet

Telnet sessions allow a user to establish a dumb-terminal connection to a server and run processes on the server. A telnet client like Microsoft Telnet is needed to have a telnet session. To begin a telnet sesion from a Windows command line type TELNET and the IP address or name of the remote machine and press return. Once a connection is established, you must logon to the server with a valid username and
password.


Question:
A client-side script is not working correctly. What is the most likely cause?

SelectionA:
The operating system does not support scripting.

SelectionC:
The web client doesn't support scripting.

Explanation:
The web client doesn't support scripting.


Question:
Before you can use any Internet-client for a dial-up connection, what must be installed and configured on the client?

Explanation:
Modem

For dial-up connection a modem or ISDN adapter is needed.


Question:
To connect to the Internet what does a Web browser require?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

You must have a TCP/IP connection to connect a web browser to the Internet. Obviously, an Operating System is necessary for the browser to work, but the question is about connecting to Internet. TCP/IP is the protocol upon which the Internet is based .


Question:
Which low cost device could you install to allow a user web access?

Explanation:
Internet appliance

An Internet appliance allows users to connect to the Internet without the need for a full fledged PC. These usually have a keyboard, pointing device and monitor. They usually have little storage capacity.


Question:
If you have a Web Browser, TCP/IP and are running a machine with Windows 98, which component is missing to allow Internet client access?

Explanation:
Network connection

This could mean a modem and POTS, DSL, ISDN or cable modem.


Question:
If no expiration date is set, how long will a session cookie stay in effect?

Explanation:
The user shuts down the browser.

There are two types of cookies session cookies and persistent cookies. A persistent cookie is used to store your preferences for use by a single site. A persistent cookie is stored on your hard drive and is read by your browser each time you visit the web site that sent the cookie.

Session cookies are no longer accessible after one of the following events:
- The user logs out of a site or a portion of a site. 
- The user shuts down the browser. 
- The session is inactive for a specified length of time (often 20 minutes). 
- The user starts a new Internet session on the same computer.


Question:
The type of technology wherein a browser must go to a site and bring information down is known as which of the following?

Explanation:
Pull

In push technology, the browser gets information pushed to it without it requesting it. In pull technology - on which most of the web is based - a user requests data before it is sent down.An e-mail client using the POP3 protocol is an example of pull technology.


Question:
Which browser setting controls how a web browser receives information and automatically downloaded content from web sites?

Explanation:
Security settings

Check your browser's Tool, options menu to see how you can set security settings.


Question:
You browse the web and when you enter the URL of the web page you receive the "error 404" message. What is the cause of that message?

Explanation:
The file does not exist on the server.

A 404 error is received when a requested web age is not available. Check for a misspelling in the URL. If you get the 404 error again perhaps the page was removed from the server.


SelectionA:
The web client doesn't support scripting.

SelectionC:
The web server doesn't support scripting.

Explanation:
The web client doesn't support scripting.

Client-side scripting can include Java applets, Active Server Pages, and ActiveX. Any execution that occurs within the browser is known as client-side programming, while any execution that occurs before data reaches the browser is known as server-side.


Question:
What is the default port for the SMTP protocol?

Explanation:
25 is the port for SMTP

If you are configuring an e-mail application you will have to know the port number for incoming and outgoing mail.
21 is the port for FTP
23 is the port for Telnet
80 is the port for HTTP
110 is for POP3


Question:
Which of the following protocols could be used as an alternate to POP3 for receiving e-mail?

Explanation:
IMAP

With POP (Post Office Protocol), mail is delivered to a shared server, and a personal computer user periodically connects to the server and downloads all of the pending mail to the "client" machine.  All mail processing is local to the client machine. Once delivered to the PC, the messages are typically deleted from the POP server.

IMAP is a client-server mail protocol designed to permit manipulation of remote mailboxes as if they were local.  With IMAP, mail is again delivered to a shared server, but the mail client machine does not normally copy it all at once and then delete it from the server.  It's more of a client-server model, where the IMAP client can ask the server for headers, or the bodies of specified messages, or to search for messages meeting certain criteria.


Question:
You have been transferred to southern California and decide to do some research on living conditions there. You open a Meta search engine and type: 

(San and Diego) and (homes or cars) 

What will be your results? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
San Diego homes
San Diego cars

Just like a mathematical equation solve what is in parenthesis first. San AND Diego are required results but then you can only have one result from the second set of parenthesis homes OR cars.


Question:
How can you ensure that you are seeing the most up-to-date web site pages?

Explanation:
Press the refresh button.

This will reload the page. If you are using a Proxy server however, you might have to contact the proxy servers administrator about clearing the proxy server's cache or you might be loading a page saved to the proxy for quick retrieval.


Question:
What type of SMTP server sends e-mails it receives to a list of e-mail recipients, forming a “discussion group”?

Explanation:
List

List servers allow you to send an e-mail to everyone on the list. Some other features of a list server might be:
-Create a custom sign-up form for new subscribers or upload your existing list 
-Gather demographics, interests, and other data from your subscribers 
-Filter your list member database to target messages 
-Add or remove subscribers and purge duplicate addresses automatically 
-Track clicks on links inside a message


Explanation:
OC3

Below are some connection types and their relative speeds:
T1 	1.54 Mbps
E1 	2.048 Mbps (European standard comparable to T1) 
T3 	45 Mbps
OC-1 	51.8 Mbps - OC stands for optical carrier.
OC-3  	155.52 Mbps - This is the fiber optic standard in use today.


Question:
What is the maximum speed of a T3 connection?

Explanation:
45 Mbps  

T-3 lines are used mainly by Internet Service Providers (ISPs) connecting to the Internet backbone and for the backbone itself. Fiber optics cable is normally used for T3 lines.


Question:
What is the maximum speed of an E3 connection?

Explanation:
34  Mbps

E3 lines are used in Europe and is similar technology to T3.

Fiber optics cable is normally used for T3 lines.


Explanation:
1.54 Mbps

Below are some connection types and their relative speeds:
T1 	1.54 Mbps
E1 	2.048 Mbps (European standard comparable to T1) 
T3 	45 Mbps
OC-1 	51.8 Mbps - OC stands for optical carrier.
OC-3  	155.52 Mbps - This is the fiber optic standard in use today.


Explanation:
E1

E1 is a European standard comparable to the T1.


SelectionA:
It is the Data Link Layer address of a NIC that can not be modified

SelectionB:
It is the Physical layer address of a NIC that can be modified

SelectionC:
It is the Data Link Layer address of a NIC that can be modified

SelectionD:
It is the Network layer address of a NIC that can not be modified

Explanation:
It is the Data Link Layer address of a NIC that can not be modified

The MAC or Media Access Control address is the Data Link Layer address of a NIC that has been burned into a NIC card, this should not be modified.


Explanation:
NIC manufacturer

Each Network Card (NIC) has a burned in MAC address. You can't get a MAC address from a web site. While it is true that InterNIC, is a resource organization for the Internet, assigns each manufacturer the first 6 digits (00000C  = Cisco, 00000E  = Fujitsu, 00000F  = NeXT, etc.) it is the NIC manufacturer that issues the unique MAC address.

Hardware addresses are 48 bits, expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits (0-9, plus A-F, capitalized). They should be written hyphenated by octets (e.g., 12:34:56:78:9A:BC). This gives a theoretical 281,474,976,710,656 addresses. This is more than 56,000 MAC addresses for each person on the planet! In practice, the address assignment policy (using flat addressing) will lead to some wastage - but even so, there are likely to be enougth addresses for ever computer, piece of networking equipment and household/office devices which could in the future be Internet enabled.


Question:
What transport technology translates names of network hosts into network addresses?

Explanation:
Name Resolution  

Name resolution on the Internet is handled by DNS. The Domain Name System (DNS) is a set of protocols and services in the TCP/IP protocol suite. To resolve (that is a fancy way to say translate) a domain name to IP address, your browser contacts a DNS server. The address of a DNS server is provided by your ISP. If the domain name is not found in your ISP's DNS, the ISP's DNS requests that information from the root domain server. The root domain server is responsible for maintaining database of top level domains like .com, .net, .org and country specific domains like .FR or RU.


Question:
You log on to your ISP regularly but you get frustrated because you are constantly disconnected and are forced to reconnect several times while surfing the web. What is the most likely cause of this?

Explanation:
Line noise

Line noise is caused by a bad, noisy phone connection between modems. Line noise is usually the reason behind frequent disconnection. Line noise can also appear as garbage characters on your screen, and can generate garbage for both the input and the output. 

Usually, line noise is the phone company's fault. The best thing to do is to tell the telephone company. They can test the line up to your phone jack without even leaving their office.


Question:
You have a large network with many users and you notice that your network server slows down early morning and around lunchtime every day. What could be the cause of this?

Explanation:
Network congestion

The network servers are usually busiest in the morning and at around lunch time because these are the times when users log on (or off) and the server has to deal with the largest number of simultaneous requests.


Question:
You are setting up an Extranet for your business. Which of the following is the least important security consideration?

SelectionA:
Your business partner's security policy / practice

Explanation:
Distance of your ISP from NAP

The distance of your ISP from the Network Access Point is something that you have no control over. However, you can decide to create a security policy based on the other considerations.


Question:
What entry in the DNS identifies an alias?

Explanation:
CNAME

Some of the DNS records to remember are:
- SOA  (Start of authority) is the first entry in every DNS server. It contains the email address of the DNS server's administrator and other important information about the DNS server and the local DNS database.
- A record contains a mapping of IP address to the Host's name.
- MX record. MX record contains information of what email server processes email for the domain.
- CNAME record. CNAME record can be used to assign an alias for the Host.


SelectionA:
Contains a mapping of IP address to the Host's name.

SelectionB:
Contains information of what email server processes email for the domain.

SelectionC:
Contains the email address of the DNS server's administrator.

SelectionD:
can be used to assign an alias for the Host.

Explanation:
Contains a mapping of IP address to the Host's name.

Some of the DNS records to remember are:
- SOA  (Start of authority) is the first entry in every DNS server. It contains the email address of the DNS server's administrator and other important information about the DNS server and the local DNS database.
- A record contains a mapping of IP address to the Host's name.
- MX record. MX record contains information of what email server processes email for the domain.
- CNAME record. CNAME record can be used to assign an alias for the Host.


Question:
Client B accesses Exam Drill LAN resources using a dial-up connection to Server A which has a persistent connection to the publicly switched telephone system. What kind of server is Server A?

Explanation:
RAS

A Remote Access Server is the point of access to an internal network. Client B is not calling his ISP to create a VPN he is dialing with his modem directly into the RAS server.


Explanation:
Primary

DNS servers divide the extent of their coverage area into zones, with primary and secondary servers. Primary servers usually contain the master copy of the DNS database while secondary servers contain a read only copy.

Windows 2000 introduced a new type of DNS zone called Actve Directory integrated in which every domain controller had a master copy of the DNS database which relicated to other domain controllers with Active Directory.


Question:
Which WAN connection uses 53 byte cells?

Explanation:
ATM

ATM uses an advanced form of packet switching, known as cell -switching. All data is packaged into 53 byte cells.


Question:
Which type of DNS record maps a host name to an IP address?

Explanation:
A (Address record)

The address record maps the host name to the IP address


Question:
What FTP command is used to download a file from a remote site?

Explanation:
Get

To place a single file on an FTP site, use the put command. To place multiple files on an FTP site, use mput. To retrieve a single file from an FTP site, use get. Use mget to retrieve
multiple files.


Question:
What would you use to determine the MAC address of a workstation.

Explanation:
ARP

The ARP utility allows you to display and modify the IP to physical address translation table.
ARP -a displays the ARP table


Question:
What TCP/IP tool is used to view the current contents of a packet on your networked computer?

Explanation:
Protocol analyzer

A primary function of a protocol analyzer is to capture and display data packets. This tool has many other uses as well. Protocol analyzers can identify the source of broadcast storms, identify the most active "talkers" on the network, identify "jabbering" NICs, etc.


Question:
What is the TCP/IP protocol for directory access?

Explanation:
LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, sometimes called X.500lite, LDAP is based on the X.500 LDAP is based on the X.500 standard.  It is simpler than X.500 and unlike X.500, LDAP supports TCP/IP.


Question:
Which FTP command is used to download multiple files?

Explanation:
MGET

The FTP commands mget and mput allow for multiple file transfers using wildcards to get several files, or a whole set of files at once, rather than having to do it manually one at a time.


Explanation:
21

FTP uses 21 for the default port number


Question:
Telnet servers present no security risk.

Explanation:
False

Telnet is the Internet standard protocol for remote logins. It represents a serious security risk and must be controlled with firewalls, passwords and access control lists.


Question:
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 194.206.62.5?

Explanation:
255.255.255.0

Since the first octet is greater than 191, it is a class C address. The default subnet mask for a Class C address is 255.255.255.0


Question:
You enter ftp://124.90.139.51 and are able to access the site. You cannot access the site when you try ftp://comptia.com. What's wrong?

Explanation:
The DNS entry is missing or corrupt

Since you can reach the site with the IP address, we know the server is working. The question does not even mention a filename, so we can eliminate answers relating to the file. However, if the DNS (Domain Name Service) entry is missing or wrong, the domain name cannot be mapped to the IP addresses and you would not be able to reach the site using the name.


Question:
What transport protocol does TFTP use as a delivery protocol?

Explanation:
UDP

TFTP (Trivial File Transport Protocol) uses UDP as a delivery protocol, and is therefore connection-less.


Question:
Which DNS record is sometimes referred to as the alias record?

Explanation:
CNAME

CNAME or Canonical name  record allows a host to have multiple names. This allows the same server to provide both ftp and http services.


Question:
What port is usually used to connect to a web site?

Explanation:
80

HTTP is used to connect to web sites. The port number for HTTP is 80. Below you will find some common port numbers to remember.

FTP	21
HTTP 	80
TELNET 	23
POP3 	110
SMTP 	25


Question:
What would you use to show all current TCP/IP connections?

Explanation:
NETSTAT

NETSTAT will display your current TCP/IP session including addresses of hosts connected to your computer and port numbers. It is used to find out who's communicating with your computer. Port numbers will reveal what service being used. NETSTAT can be useful if you suspect that someone is connected to your computer without authorization.


Explanation:
IP

One might say that Telnet runs on top of IP. To telnet from Windows, go to Start --> Run and type "telnet [ip address]".


Question:
Which type of DNS record identifies the mail server for a domain?

Explanation:
MX

The MX (Mail Exchange) record points to a mail exchange for a particular host.


SelectionB:
Users cannot use their e-mail address as a password

SelectionC:
Users have to change their logon regularly

SelectionD:
Users have to change their logon the first time they log on

Explanation:
Users cannot change their own password

You cannot change your own password, you must ask the administrator to do it for you. Before you contact the administrator, you must have your username, old password and new password ready.


Question:
When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as:

Explanation:
RFC

RFC stands for Request For Comments. The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is responsible for ongoing development of the TCP/IP protocol. When new TCP/IP protocols are proposed, the IETF issues RFCs that contain the specifications for the new protocol.


Question:
The IP address "131.200.110.68" belongs to which class?

Explanation:
Class B

Class A is 1 to 126
Class B is 128 to 191
Class C is 192 to 223
Class D is not available for use.


Question:
Which of the following is a valid Class B address?

Explanation:
128.122.232.45

127.0.0.1 is reserved for loopback testing
126.xxx.xxx.xxx is the end of the class A range
128.xxx.xxx.xxx is the beginning of the class B range
192.xxx.xxx.xxx is the beginning of the class C range


Question:
What does a valid Host file entry look like?

SelectionA:
www.acme.com  38.28.l0.10  #acme web site

SelectionB:
216.28.l0.10  www.acme.com  #acme web site

SelectionC:
216.28.l0.10  www.acme.com  //acme web site

Explanation:
216.28.l0.10  www.acme.com #acme  web site

Each entry should be kept on an individual line. The IP address should be placed in the first column followed by the corresponding host name. The IP address and the host name should be separated by at least one space.

Comments may be inserted on individual lines or following the machine name denoted by a '#' symbol.


Explanation:
25

Some important ports to remember are:
FTP 	21
HTTP	80
TELNET 	23
POP3 	110
SMTP 	25


Explanation:
23

The port numbers 1–1023 are defined as and considered wellknown port numbers. These are like house numbers Some important ports to remember are:
FTP 	21
HTTP	80
TELNET 	23
POP3 	110
SMTP 	25


Question:
What native protocol is the Internet based on?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

You may access the Internet with a PC, Mac, WebTV or Internet apliance but the one absolute necessity is the TCP/IP protocol.


SelectionB:
It can be used to assign an alias for the Host.

SelectionC:
It identifies other name servers in the domain.

SelectionD:
It contains information of what email server

Explanation:
NS record identifies other name servers in the domain.

An A record contains a mapping of IP address to the Host's name.
An MX record contains information of what email server processes email for the domain.
A CNAME record can be used to assign an alias for the Host.


Question:
Networks with a C class IP address supports how many host?

Explanation:
254

An IP address is a 32 bit binary number that is divided into 4 octets. Depending on the class of the address it will have one, two or three octets dedicated to the host portion. if it is a class A address then there will be three octets or 24 bits dedicated to the host portion. Class B uses the last two octets and Class C only the last octet. Look at the following formula.
 
Class A  	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 24th power - 2 unusable addresses = 16,777,214
Class B	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 16th power - 2 unusable addresses = 65,534
Class C 	2 (for counting in binary) raised to the 8th power - 2 unusable addresses = 254


Question:
A Router operates on the network layer and is capable of selecting multiple data paths?

Explanation:
TRUE

Routers are intelligent devices operating at the Network layer. Routers evaluate the destination address of the packet and forward it to the next node along the way to its destination.


Question:
Internet Service Providers (ISPs) access the Internet through Network Access Points (NAPs).

Explanation:
True

On April 30 1995 the architecture of the American Internet underwent a major change from a single dominant NSFnet backbone to a series of commercial provider owned and operated coast-to-coast national backbones. Under these conditions, the backbones had to have some means of exchanging data. Four NAPs or Network Access Points were designated to serve as data interchange points for backbone service providers. NSF's three primary NAPs are in San Francisco California bay area, Chicago, and Pennsauken NJ near Philadelphia.


Question:
To which component of the Internet can individual users buy modem connections so that they can get on the Internet?

Explanation:
Access point ISP

ISPs (Internet Service Providers) are what users use for a connection to the Internet. The ISPs connect to Network Access Points which gives them access to the Internet backbone.


Question:
Choose which of the following that would not give you an Internet connection.

Explanation:
Virtual modem

ADSL technology works by taking the phone line's bandwidth between 24,000 hertz and 1,200,000 hertz and dividing it into 4,000 hertz bands, and a virtual modem is assigned to each band. Each of these 249 virtual modems transmit as best as it can with the assigned slice of bandwidth. The combinined capacity of these 249 virtual modems makeup the overall speed of the "pipe".


Question:
How long for a 128 Kbps ISDN modem to download a 100 KB file?

Explanation:
8 Seconds

Remember that bandwidth is measured in bits per second and file sizes are measured in bytes. Instead of multiplying the file size by eight, (eight bits per byte), it's best to multiply it by ten to compensate for overhead and error correction.
100KB x 10 = 1000 kb
1000 kb / 128 kb/s = 7.8 seconds
We round it off to 8 seconds.


Question:
Which AT modem command do you use for dialing?

Explanation:
ATD

Every modem that is called "Hayes compatible" follows a certain set of codes which tell the modem what to do. In the case of some programs, you don't have to know these commands to dial your modem, because the program does it for you. Other programs, such as KERMIT require that you know these commands to dial your modem and perform other useful functions. 

The order in which the commands are issued is important. "AT" must always be the first command you type. Once you give the "D" command, any character typed after it either is executed as a subcommand of the "D" command or is dialed. Therefore, if you typed the "M0" command after the "D" command, the modem would try to dial M0 instead of trying to shut off the sound.


Explanation:
Java Server Pages

JSP allow for dynamic and flexible web development. JSP technology allows web developers to create cross-platform web applications, and can be used to create interactive sites, such as a bank site which allows customers real-time account balances and transaction information.


Question:
Which of the following would be used to express the structure of XML documents.

Explanation:
Extensible Stylesheet Language (XSL). 

XSL is a language for expressing stylesheets. With XML documents or data files, designers use an XSL stylesheet to express their intentions about how that structured content should be presented; that is, how the source content should be styled, laid out, and paginated onto some presentation medium, such as a window in a Web browser or a hand-held device, or a set of physical pages in a catalog, report, pamphlet, or book.


Question:
You have a web browser. For which of the following data formats would you need an additional program or plug-in to view?

Explanation:
PDF

Many documents are published on the web as PDF documents. To read them you need Adobe Acrobat Reader which is available as a free download from the Adobe website.


Question:
What would most likely cause a client side script to not work properly?

Explanation:
The web client doesn't support scripting.

According to some web designers not all browsers support client-side scripting so authors should avoid dependence on client-side scripting wherever possible. The NOSCRIPT element can be used to provide content for browsers that do not support client-side scripting. But because modern browsers that support client-side scripting include Netscape Navigator 2.0 and up, Microsoft Internet Explorer 3.0 and up, and Opera 3.0 and later, it is more likely that the browser has its option for supporting scripts disabled.


Question:
Which language is Browser vendor-dependent?

Explanation:
VBScrpt

VBScript is a subset of Microsoft's Visual Basic, and is fully supported only in Microsoft's Internet Explorer 3 and above.


Explanation:
Java

Java must be interpreted by a Java compiler.
Java Script and HTML are interpreted by the browser
PERL is interpreted by the server


Explanation:
Server

CGI (Common Gateway Interface) programs are server side programs that process data that a web site's visitors type into HTML forms. 
Example: The browser displays your web page with an input form on the user's PC. The user fills out the form and clicks the Submit button. The browser then creates a string that contains the names of the form elements, along with the data the user entered and sends the contents of the form back to your server. The CGI program on your server processes the string and places the data the user typed into the form into the appropriate fields in the database on the server. 
CGI is the specification that defines the structure of the string. The CGI program must be able to separate the data and names of the form elements from the string.


Question:
What allows documents (web pages) to be easily translated into other languages?

Explanation:
Unicode

Unicode enables a single software product or a single website to be targeted across multiple platforms, languages and countries without re-engineering. It allows data to be transported through many different systems without corruption.


Question:
You have a database which must be accessed by 1300 users. What is the best query language to use?

Explanation:
SQL

SQL has been the favorite query language for database management systems running on minicomputers and mainframes. Increasingly, however, SQL is being supported by PC database systems because it supports distributed databases (databases that are spread out over several computer systems. Although there are different dialects of SQL, it is nevertheless the closest thing to a standard query language that currently exists. The new standard is known as SAG SQL.


Question:
What is Microsoft's web server software called?

Explanation:
IIS

Internet Information Server is Microsoft's implementation of a web server.


Question:
What is the most useful aspect of the JAVA language?

Explanation:
Cross platform capability

JAVA is a platform independent language. This means that any computer can run JAVA programs as long as the computer has a JAVA virtual machine of the same version (similar to a runtime engine in other interpreted languages). 
The learning cure for Java is not necessarily gentle, it depends on the individual and previous programming experience. 
Being an interpreted language, Speed is not one of JAVA 's strengths. However, considering the speed at which modern computers run, this is typically not a big drawback.


Question:
Browsers commonly support which client-side scripting language?

Explanation:
JavaScript

JavaScript is commonly used as a client side scripting language.
PERL is generally used as a server side scripting language.
CGI is not a language, it's more of a specification for interacting with a database from web pages.
JAVA is a general purpose programming language.


SelectionA:
They may be a maximum of 10 cookies per domain.

SelectionB:
They may be a maximum of 20 cookies per domain.

SelectionC:
They may be a maximum of 4 cookies per domain.

Explanation:
They may be a maximum of 20 cookies per domain.

A web site can set multiple cookies. The maximum number of cookies per domain is 20. The maximum size of cookies is 4 KB. When the limit on number of cookies is reached, the least recently used cookie is deleted.


Explanation:
META tag

The <META> tags go inside the ... tags. Notice the "/" in the last tag. <META> tags are used to include the site's description and keywords that search engines use to index sites. META tags must have attributes. Usual attributes are "name" and "content".


Question:
What would be the correct way to create a link to www.examdrill.com?

Explanation:
Exam Drill

The Exam Drill section of the above link will appear as text on the page because it is between this tag ">" and this tag "<".


Question:
What are the basic elements of every web page? (choose three)

Explanation:
HTML declaration, Body, Head

Forms are used for the input of data that will be sent to the server for processing. An example of the form is the e-mail form that is widely used on the Internet. A user can fill out the form and send the data to the server. Forms are not a basic element of every web page. 

The HTML tag to start the form is and requires the closing tag .

Forms are not a basic element of every web page.


Question:
How do you put a copyright statement into HTML code?

SelectionA:

SelectionB:

Explanation:


Question:
You want to customize your web site based on preferences of each visitor. You expect to have at least 1000 visitors. What method would you use to store the visitor preferences?

Explanation:
Cookies

The purpose of cookies is to remember certain information about the user when the user accesses the web site. This can include the user’s name and password, user preferences, the date and time of the last visit to the web site, how many times the user has been to the web site.


Question:
What is the second line of a MIME header?

Explanation:
Content Type

MIME header look something like this:

MIME-Version: 1.0
Content-Type: text/html; charset=us-ascii


Question:
How many bits per character does Unicode use?

Explanation:
16

Unicode is a universal character set whose goal is to include characters for all of the worlds written languages, plus a large set of technical symbols, math operators, and so on--everything that needs to be encoded in text. Basic Unicode uses 16-bit code points.


Question:
A web page looks cluttered to a user. The user has same browser as you. What could be wrong?

Explanation:
Lowest common resolution was not used

If you design a web page at 800 by 600 screen resolution, it may not look good at all at a smaller resolution.

If the MIME type is wrong, the browser would not be able to select the correct application to open the document. This would mire likely result in either not opening the document at all, or illegible garbage being displayed.

We are told the user has the same browser as you, so that can be eliminated.

As for the page being handled by the server, that is so vague, it doesn't tell us enough about what the browser may have done.


SelectionC:
The head and title tags are out of order.

Explanation:
The title tags aren't closed

The closing title tag needs a "/". Should be .
Having elements in uppercase is desirable, but not necessary.


Question:
Which was developed to integrate HTML with a data source?

Explanation:
XML

XML (extensive markup language) Just like with HTML, you can use a simple text editing program like notepad to write XML code. XML offers more control over the text formatting and positioning text and other elements on the page.


Explanation:
4 KB

Cookies must be no larger than 4 KB. That is just over 4,000 characters.


Question:
Which are attributes of HTML forms? (Choose three.)

Explanation:
Method, Action, Input

Action - is usually set to a URL of the program that will handle the form data.
Method - Specifies how a form's data will be submitted to the address specified by the Action attribute.
Input - Allows you to use a variety of controls on the form for user input.


Question:
What is true about cookies? (Choose two)

Explanation:
They are unencrypted. 
They are stored on the client.

Cookies are unencrypted and stored on the client.  Even though cookies may not be legible in English, that is not the same as "encrypted". "Encrypted" means a "key" is used to convert information to ciphertext. Cookies do not require a key to be interpreted.


Question:
What is the purpose of the LANG attribute?

SelectionA:
It indicates what type of language to expect on the page.

SelectionC:
It indicates what protocol is being used

SelectionD:
It indicates the server side script used

Explanation:
It indicates what type of language to expect on the page.

The Lang attribute indicates the language being used for the enclosed content. ISO standard language abbreviations such as "en" for English or "fr" for French are used to identify the specific language.
See the following web age;
http://hotwired.lycos.com/webmonkey/97/48/index1a_page4.html?tw=design


Question:
Which tag is not required for an HTML page?

Explanation:
TEXTAREA

The textarea tag is used to place a multiline text input field within a web page form and is not required, nor would it be part of most simple web pages.


Question:
What is the most common way of getting information from a web server?

Explanation:
AN HTML FORM

Web users provide information to web servers by way of forms on the web pages. The data the user inputs into the form is processed by the web server by a CGI (Common Gateway Interface).


Question:
In terms of web site design, what is CSS?

Explanation:
Cascading Style Sheets

CSS is normally used to refer to Cascading Style Sheets in web page design.

It could stand for Commercially Secured Server, but in web design it is Cascading Style Sheets.


Explanation:
OL

OL - Numbered List
UL - Bulleted List
TD - Table Cell
TR - Table Row


Question:
What is the best Dots Per Square Inch (DPI) for the quickest download time?

Explanation:
72  DPI

The fewer dots per inch means the smaller the file size. Smaller files download quicker.


SelectionA:
Breaks one image into multiple smaller images

SelectionB:
Displays a smaller version of a larger image

SelectionC:
Links multiple URL's from a single image

SelectionD:
Displays a hyperlink table of contents for a site.

Explanation:
Links multiple URLs from a single image 

A single graphic image containing more than one hot spot. For example, a graphic of a broadway play. When you click on an actors face, the browser displays the biography of that actor.


Question:
An API (Application programming Interface) that allows Java objects to send messages to Java objects running in other Java Virtual Machines anywhere on a TCP/IP network.

Explanation:
Java RMI (Remote Method Invocation)

RMI provides for remote communication between programs written in the Java programming language. The Java Remote Method Invocation (RMI) system allows an object running in one Java Virtual Machine (VM) to invoke methods on an object running in another Java VM.  
Object Oriented programming languages divide source code into modules or "objects". RMI allows a Java program running on one machine to access and communicate with the objects of a Java program running on a remote Java machine. 

A program like Exam Drill has objects communicating and passing data between them within the memory of the local PC. Many of these objects are contained in the various "shared DLLs", like the Common Dialog DLL (used for opening files and selecting fonts) that Windows operating systems use. RMI allows this concept to extend across a network between Java programs.


Question:
Your web page looks fine on your PC, but after uploading it to the server the images are not displayed. What should you check?

Explanation:
Image source URL

The Image Source setting in the HTML code for the page may be set to work on your PC's directory path, but the server's path may not match. You need to set the image source to match the directory structure on the server.


Question:
Web caching does not provide reduction in _________?

SelectionC:
Number of requests processed by the web server

Explanation:
Number of security breaches

Browsers use WebCaching to avoid having to download the most recently used files over again. This doesn't shorten the initial download time for a specific document, but if the document needs to be accessed again, the "perceived" download time will be shortened. Since frequently accessed documents don't need to be download as often, caching also reduces bandwidth demands and the number of requests to the server.


Question:
How would object request brokers can be implemented in a multi-tiered architecture?

Explanation:
Corba

In a multi-tiered client/server system, ORBs (object request brokers) are what enables information to pass between totally separate and different applications, that may be operating on different platforms. ORBs are part of the Corba programming model.
The following description about Corba is from Webopedia.com
"Short for Common Object Request Broker Architecture, an architecture that enables pieces of programs, called objects, to communicate with one another regardless of what programming language they were written in or what operating system they're running on. CORBA was developed by an industry consortium known as the Object Management Group (OMG). "


Question:
The success of a banner ad is usually measured in

Explanation:
Clickthrough rate

The clickthrough rate of a banner ad is the percentage of people that see the ad who will click it and be taken to the advertiser's site. Realistic clickthrough rates are between one and two percent.


Question:
What is a frequent error when developing international English language sites?

Explanation:
Using colloquialisms

Communication is difficult enough with people speak the same language. Remember that the web is international, and although you may be writing in English think about people who use it as a second or third language. Do not be too colloquial. Stay away from slang and colloquial expressions which people outside your country will not be familiar with. This is more difficult than you might think. What is the correct English translation for "Beating about the bush" or "Ya know"?


Question:
Which language is NOT interpreted by a web server?

Explanation:
HTML

HTML is interpreted by the browser on the client side.


Question:
You want to implement Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) in an e-commerce business application. Which of the following is needed?

Explanation:
Relational database

Relational databases such as SQL Server, are used with Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)


Question:
Within which DNS record can you find the name of the administrator?

Explanation:
SOA 

The Start of Authority identifies who or what has authoritative responsibility for a domain and also identifies the database's current version.


Question:
Olivia just signed up with an Internet Service Provider (ISP), and now she is setting up her e-mail client program to receive mail on her new service. To receive e-mail she needs some specific server information. Which of the following must Olivia know to receive e-mail messages from her ISP?

Explanation:
POP3 server address 

Post Office Protocol (POP) is used to download e-mail messages from an Internet POP server, which receives and stores e-mail until the user downloads it. The POP server is identified using a unique host name or IP address. Some servers use Internet Messaging Access Protocol (IMAP) instead of POP. 

When you configure your e-mail client, you also usually need to supply an SMTP server address so you can send e-mail. While the mail client uses POP to retrieve mail, it uses Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to send mail. 

You would need an address for a Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) server if you were configuring a client for newsgroups. 

You would not need a Web server address to configure an e-mail client.


Explanation:
open

At a command line type "ftp" (without the " ") then return. You will see an ftp prompt like this:
ftp>
Open your session with the following format. Of course "your_isp" is literally your ISP. 

ftp> open ftp.your_isp.com 
Connected to ftp.your_isp.com
220 ftp.your_isp.com ready 
Name: (enter your user name) 
Password: (enter your password)


Question:
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 23.255.255.101?

Explanation:
255.0.0.0 

The IP address 23.255.255.101 is a class A address because its first byte falls between 1 and 126. Therefore, the default subnet mask is 255.0.0.0. 

A class B address would use a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. 

A class C address would use a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. 

255.255.255.255 is not a valid subnet mask. Class D and E addresses require no subnet masks.


Question:
You can ping localhost and your own IP address, but you cannot ping your default gateway's IP address. What is wrong?

Explanation:
Wrong subnet mask is being used 

PING is used to verify a connection between your computer and remote host. You can ping a host using its IP address or its host name. If you can ping a host by IP address but can't by its name then you have a problem with name resolution. Most likely the subnet mask, which identifies which network you are on, is incorrect. 

In the scenario listed you can PING yourself therefore the NIC is alright. If you can ping a host by IP address but can't by its name then you have a problem with name resolution. But there is no evidence that the DNS server is down or that there is network congestion


Question:
If you have a problem receiving email, what should you check?

Explanation:
POP3 server 

A Post Office Protocol server is where you pick up your mail. Just think of a real post office. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol but if you are haveing trouble keeping POP and SMTP straight just imagine that the "S" in SMTP stands for "send".


Question:
You want to configure a new client computer to connect to other computers in your Windows NT 4 LAN. Your LAN is not connected to the Internet, and it is not necessary for your users to connect to the Internet or to any computers outside the LAN. Which of the following must you configure?

SelectionB:
IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway

SelectionD:
IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS

Explanation:
IP address and subnet mask   
  
An IP address is needed for the computer to communicate with others in the network. A subnet mask is needed to identify the network name and the host name within the IP address. 

A default gateway is not needed, because a default gateway is used to send data to computers outside the LAN, and no such connection is needed in this case. DNS is used to resolve an IP address to a fully qualified domain name. Because you are not connecting to other domains, DNS is not necessary.


Question:
What type of DNS entry is used to identify the mail server for a domain?

Explanation:
MX

MX, or Mail Exchange, record contains information of what email server processes email for the domain.


Question:
Which of the following IP addresses is invalid?

Explanation:
10.256.33.255 

Each field in an IP address must have a value ranging from 0 to 255. The network portion or host portion can contain a 0 or 255 but the network or host portion cannot be all 0s or 255s. The address 10.256.33.255 contains an invalid value (256) in the second byte.


Question:
Which of the following is a valid class B network?

Explanation:
130.1.1.1 

The range of addresses between 128.0.0.0 and 191.0.0.0 is considered a class B address.


Question:
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are connection-oriented? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
FTP, HTTP

FTP is connection oriented.
HTTP is connection oriented.
TFTP is not connection oriented.
NetBEUI is connection oriented but is NOT a TCP/IP protocol. It also is not a topic for the CCNA exam.


Question:
Which of the following protocols are in TCP/IP suite? (Choose three.)

Explanation:
IP, DHCP, HTTP

IP = Internet Protocol is part of the TCP/IP suite. Used for routing packets.
DHCP -Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically assign IP addresses for network devices/Hosts
HTTP Hyper Text Transfer Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used for transfering Web pages around the Internet.
SAP is a Novell protocol


Question:
Which device on your segment processes all packets destined for a remote network?

Explanation:
Default Gateway

The Default Gateway is a router that determines where to send packets that are addressed to destinations outside the local segment. 
A hub doesn't do any processing.
A Bridge passes packets that aren't addressed to the local network but doesn't process or "route" them to a specific destination.
A switch is a special type of intelligent hub that provides virtual circuits between devices to decrease collisions.


Question:
How does HTTP1.1 provide "best effort" in transferring data?

Explanation:
It supports persistent connections

Unlike HTTP1.0, HTTP1.1 keeps the port 80 connection open by default after the server has responded to the request from the browser. This enables the browser to make further requests without having to establish a new connection for each request.


Explanation:
PING and TRACERT

TRACERT will display a report that lists all routers and networks that the packet must travel to get to ist destination and the time in milliseconds that packet takes to travel between routers. This is useful when trying to find a bottleneck in your network.
PING is used to verify the connection between your computer and remote host. You can ping a host using its IP address or its host name.


Question:
Which class of addressing is reserved for futures use?

Explanation:
E

A 	1-126 255.0.0.0 		Class A networks can have over 16 million hosts.
B 	128-191 255.255.0.0 	Class B networks can have over 64 thousand hosts.
C	192-223 255.255.255.0 	Class C network can have 254 hosts.
D 	224-239 			Used for multicast broadcasts.
E 	240-255 			Reserved for future use.
F 	Does not exist.


Question:
Which TCP/IP protocol is the primary protocol used to transfer text and binary files on the Internet?

Explanation:
FTP

FTP is used to upload and download files.


Question:
Which two commands allow you to verify address configuration in your network?

Explanation:
Ping 
Trace

Ping sends and receives ICMP echo messages to verify connectivity. 
Trace (or Traceroute or Tracert) sends series of ICMP echos with increasing TTL values to verify the current route to a host.


Explanation:
FTP

FTP or File Transfer Protocol is a client-server protocol that allows a user on one computer to transfer files to and from another computer over a TCP/IP network. Also the client program the user executes to transfer files. Two FTP commands are PUT and GET. PUT is used to send the file from a client to a server (MPUT for multiple files). GET is used to initiate a transfer of file from the server to the client (MGET for multiple files). All FTP servers require a client to have a valid account and a password to access the files. Most FTP sites on the Internet are configured to use "anonymous" access. That is why you are not prompted for user ID and Password when accessing most FTP sites. FTP uses TCP as a delivery protocol.


Question:
What are the generic paths of a network layer address?

Explanation:
A network number and host number

An IP address consists of two parts, one identifying the network and one identifying the host. The Class of the address determines which part is the network address and which part is the host address.


Question:
Which protocol does TFTP use as a delivery protocol?

Explanation:
UDP

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a stripped down version of FTP. TFPT is a connectionless protocol and TFTP uses UDP as a delivery protocol.


Question:
What is the result of using a hierarchial addressing frame work?

SelectionD:
No need to maintain routing information.

Explanation:
Increased availability of addresses. 

This is a pretty easy concept so don't think too hard. If everyone only had a first name (i.e. John, Mary, Pete, etc.)  pretty soon we would run out of names. But if we give people second names (John Doe, John Smith, John Black, etc. Mary Jones, Mary White, ...well you get my drift) we increase the availability of names.


Question:
What is an advantage of using a connectionless protocol such as UDP?

SelectionA:
Packet acknowledgement may reduce overhead traffic.

SelectionB:
Loss or duplication of data packets is less likely to occur.

SelectionC:
Packets are not acknowledged. This reduces overhead traffic.

SelectionD:
The application relies on the transport layer for sequencing of the data packets.

Explanation:
Packets are not acknowledged. This reduces overhead traffic. 

Bandwidth is used more efficiently because network resources are not allocated bandwidth that they are not going to use. Also, since packets are not acknowledged, overhead is reduced.


Question:
Choose a connection type protocol (not connection-less).

Explanation:
TCP

Transmission Control Protocol is the most common transport layer protocol used on Ethernet and the Internet. It was developed by DARPA. TCP is built on top of the Internet Protocol (IP) and is nearly always seen in the combination TCP/IP (TCP over IP). It adds reliable communication, flow-control, multiplexing and connection-oriented communication.
The other protocols are connectionless.


Explanation:
Router and Gateway

A gateway usually is a router. Routers use software to intelligently forward Internet traffic to ist destination. It can become infected by a virus. Hubs and NICs cannot become infected with a virus.


Question:
E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet work at which OSI layer?

Explanation:
Application

E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet all operate at the Application layer. The OSI has seven different layers, which are divided into two groups. The top three layers define how the applications within the end stations will communicate with each other and with users. The bottom four layers define how data is transmitted end-to-end. The layers are:
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical


Question:
What OSI layer integrates logical addressing?

Explanation:
Network

The network layer defines logical addressing and routing as a means to deliver data across an entire network. IP and IPX are two examples of network layer protocols.


Question:
What layer of the OSI model controls communication between devices?

Explanation:
session

The Session layer is responsible for setting up, managing, and then tearing down sessions between Presentation layer entities. The Session layer also provides dialog control between devices. It coordinates communication between systems and organizes communication in simplex, half-duplex, and full-duplex.


Question:
From bottom up of the OSI reference model, which layer is the Network layer?

Explanation:
Layer 3

Always start at the physical layer as the first layer.   

When networks first came into being, computers could typically communicate only with computers from the same manufacturer. For example, companies ran either a complete DECnet or an IBM network - never both together. In the late 1970s, the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model was created by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) to break this barrier. The OSI model was meant to help vendors create interoperable network devices.


Question:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for placing the signal on the cable?

Explanation:
Physical

The cable always refers to the Physical layer. 

The OSI model is the primary architectural model for networks. It describes how data and network information are communicated from applications on one computer, through the network media, to an application on another computer. The OSI reference model breaks this approach into seven layers. The Physical layer is counted as the first layer.


Question:
The two sublayers of the IEEE Data Link Layer are which of the following?

SelectionC:
Logical Link Control and Media Access Control

Explanation:
Logical Link Control and Media Access Control

The IEEE Data Link layer has two sublayers:
Media Access Control (MAC) 802.3 defines how packets are placed on the media. Contention media access is first come, first served access where everyone shares the same bandwidth. Physical addressing is defined here, as well as logical topologies. Logical topology is the signal path through a physical topology. Line discipline, error notification, ordered delivery of frames, and optional flow control can also be used at this sublayer.

Logical Link Control (LLC) 802.2 sublayer is responsible for identifying Network layer protocols and then encapsulating them. An LLC header tells the Data Link layer what to do with a packet once a frame is received. The LLC can also provide flow control and sequencing of control bits.


Question:
Which of the following OSI layers determines which route data packets should take by evaluating  network conditions and priority of service?

Explanation:
Network

The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer.
The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data.
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the Data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.


Question:
Which layer listed manages access to the Network layer?

Explanation:
Datalink - LLC Sublayer

Logical Link Control: Defined by the IEEE, the higher of two Data-Link layer sublayers. LLC is responsible for error detection (but not correction), flow control, framing, and software-sublayer addressing. LLC is described in IEEE 802.2.  Think MAC is closer to lower hardware (Media) and LLC is closer to the more intelligent upper layers (Logical).


Question:
What layer of the OSI model does a bridge operate in?

Explanation:
Data Link

Bridges operate in the Data Link layer and are used to segment the LAN. While Bridges create multiple "collision" domains, all bridged segments are still on the same 'broadcast" domain. The reason being that they pass broadcast packets to other connected domains. 

Bridges do not help to reduce broadcast storms. They are able to pass broadcasts out every port.


Question:
Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?

Explanation:
Transport

The transport layer is responsible for reliable network communication between end nodes. The layers are:
Application
Presentation
Session
Transport
Network
Data Link
Physical

Sometimes a handy memnonic device used to remember the layers is to remember the phrase: All People Seem To Need Data Processing. The first letters of each word correspond to the OSI layers.


Question:
Which of the following devices works at the Application layer of the OSI model?

Explanation:
Gateway

A Gateway works at the Application layer and other upper layers of the OSI model.
A Bridge operates at the Data Link layer.
A Repeater operates at the Physical layer.
A Brouter operates at both the Network and Data Link layers of the OSI model.


Question:
What was the key reason for creating the International Organization for Standardization that released the OSI model?

SelectionA:
Users could access network servers faster.

SelectionB:
Different vendor's networks could work with each other.

SelectionC:
The industry could create a standard for how computers work.

SelectionD:
Network administrators could increase the overall speed of their network.

Explanation:
Different vendor's networks could work with each other.

The OSI reference model was created to help facilitate data transfer between network nodes. A major function of the OSI specifications is to assist in data transfer between different kinds of hosts. For instance one vendor's LLC sublayer could communicate with a different vendor's LLC sublayer even though they were using different Operating Systems and protocols. The OSI is a set of guidelines that application developers can use to create applications, networking standards and devices that run on a network.


Question:
What layer of the OSI model ensures packets are delivered error free, in sequence, without lost or missing packets?

Explanation:
Transport

The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data. A key word here is "sequenced". The Transport layer can re-sequence out of order packets.
The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer.
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the Data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.


Question:
What do you need to have in order for your browser to connect to a database if you use a database on your e-commerce site?

Explanation:
DSN

If you use a database, in order for you browser to connect to database, you need to create a DSN (Data Source Name) - a unique name that identifies the database.


Explanation:
Relational database

Most advance merchant systems use relational databases like SQL database. All established relational database products are designed to comply with SQL statements (called queries). A relational database is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables.


Question:
What functionality does a merchant system add to your web site?

Explanation:
e-commerce

An E-commerce enabled web site allows individuals to purchase items. To have an e-commerce enabled web site, you must set-up a merchants system. A merchants system is a program that lets you set up a store on the Internet. You can purchase merchant systems from different software companies or you can write your own program. The most advance merchant systems use relational databases like SQL database.


Question:
What is CSS in an Internet server context?

Explanation:
Commercial Secured Server

Look at the question when answering this one because CSS in another context also stands for Cascading Style Sheet.


Question:
What is the specification for on-line credit?

Explanation:
SET

SET stands for Secure Electronic Transaction. This standard enables secure credit card transactions on the Internet. SET has been endorsed by Visa, and MasterCard.  With SET, everyone in the payments process knows who everyone else is. And can prove it. The card holder, the merchant, and the acquirer can be fully authenticated. 

The core protocol of SET is based on digital certification issuance. This means that each participant in the payment transaction holds a certificate that validates their identity.


Question:
What services are necessary for a computer to be used as an e-commerce server?

Explanation:
Virtual shopping cart services  

Use of shopping cart services allows you to have an online catalog with Internet shopping cart and ordering capabilites. The service varies from provider to provider but it should track items your customers want, calculates all charges, and deliver orders from the customer to the merchant.


Question:
What types of documents are distributed using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?

Explanation:
Orders and invoices

EDI (Electronic Data Interchange) is an old standard that is widely user for transporting orders and invoices across networks. The ANSI standard upon which EDI is based is X12.


Question:
What is the Internet technology that allows the creation of shopping cart/trolley technology?

Explanation:
e-commerce server

An e-commerce server is a web server that has the coding in place to quickly deploy shopping cart services and credit card authentication..


Question:
How does the following code help copyright your page?


SelectionA:
Will not allow frame to be displayed in other web pages.

SelectionB:
This indicates that a password must be supplied to acces the page.

SelectionC:
Jumps back to the beginning of the page.

SelectionD:
Forbids anyone but the author from using the COPY command.

Explanation:
Will not allow frame to be displayed in other web pages. 

Frames allow you to combine different web pages together into one window, even if all of those pages aren't yours and weren't intended to be framed. This script checks to see if the current page is the "top" page. If it is not, it tells the web browser to load the current web page as the top, thus wiping out any frames. Of course, this script won't work with browsers that don't understand scripting, or where scripting is turned off, but the script will work on most browsers, and that makes it a pretty effective deterrent.


# NET

Question:
You successfully enter into a FTP session. What transport layer protocol can you deduct is working properly?

Explanation:
TCP

FTP is an Application layer protocol that relies on TCP for delivery.


Explanation:
Web ports  

An HTTP Proxy Server (Web Proxy Server), handles the assignment of port numbers when communicating on the Internet.


Question:
How does a server on the Internet know where to send data packets?

Explanation:
Port Number 

A Port number is used to determine which service the packets are destined for.
IP addresses are for routing.


Explanation:
Telnet 

Telnet is a  character based utility that normally uses port 23. But it can be used to check any socket. For a simple example:
telnet localhost 80


Question:
Which relates to dynamic IP address assignment?

Explanation:
Enable DHCP

IP is dynamic if you have DHCP enabled and static if you specify IP addresses. 
Enabling WINS and user level security are unrelated to whether IP is static or dynamic.


Question:
When configuring TCP/IP on a workstation, it can be configured automatically using what server component?

Explanation:
DHCP

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol when installed and configured on a server will capture DHCP requests and supply the machine with a TCP/IP address and additional information. With the DHCP server, you configure a DHCP scope, which contains a pool of addresses that are available for clients.  With the IP address, you can also supply the subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers, WINS server, AD servers and other information under the scope options. One of the major benefits of DHCP is centralized management. If some change needs to occur, change it on the DHCP server and note it at each and every machine.


Question:
What three things do you need to specify on a workstation for DNS resolution?

Explanation:
Domain name  
Host name    
IP address of the DNS server    

This is only true if you do not choose the option to find a DNS server automatically. In that case a DHCP server will find a DNS server for you.


Question:
When used with an IP address, which command would show the host name associated with that address?

Explanation:
NSLOOKUP 

For instance, NSLOOKUP 201.35.176.8
NSLOOKUP (Name Server Lookup) is used to interact with DNS. When used with an IP address, it returns the host name associated with that address. The host name is the "A" record associated with the address. You can also check other record types, including:
- CNAME (Canonical Name) 
- MX (Mail Exchanger) 
- NS (Name Server) 
- PTR (Pointer) 
- SOA (Start of Authority)
A reverse lookup works in the opposite direction (name to IP address).


Question:
What is the default protocol for NetWare 5 servers?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

With the release of NetWare 5 TCP/IP is the default protocol.


Question:
You are working at a Linux machine and want to see the IP address that was assigned to your NIC by a DHCP server. What is the proper command?

Explanation:
Ifconfig

IPCONFIG is the Windows 2000/NT command-line utility to find out the actual IP configuration. WINIPCFG is its graphical counterpart, included with Windows 95 and Windows 98.

In Linux/Unix, the functionality is rolled into the IFCONFIG utility. IFCONFIG shows the current settings for the NIC card and enables you to make necessary changes.


Question:
What command would you use at a Linux workstation to find the hop count to a server?

Explanation:
TRACEROUTE

The TRACERT utility is used in the Microsoft world, whereas the same utility in the Unix/Linux world is known as TRACEROUTE. The original traceroute is a UNIX utility, but nearly all platforms have something similar. Windows includes a traceroute utility called tracert. In Windows 9x, you can run tracert by selecting Start->Run…, and then entering tracert followed by the domain name of the host. For example: 

tracert www.examdrill.com 

Traceroute utilities work by sending packets with low time-to-live (TTL) fields. The TTL value specifies how many hops the packet is allowed before it is returned.


Question:
Which utility allows you to check to see if the IP addresses you believe should be in the ARP table are actually there and if they are mapped to the computers they should be?

Explanation:
ARP

ARP is not only the Address Resolution Protocol but also the utility used to see the entries in the Address Resolution table (which maps MAC addresses to IP addresses). The ARP utility enables you to view the addresses that have been resolved, with the following syntax options:

-a shows the cache 
-d deletes an entry 
-g shows the cache (same as –a) 
-s adds an entry


Question:
People cannot connect to the mail server. What do you use to troubleshoot port 25, SMTP?

Explanation:
Telnet

It is possible to interact with an SMTP server using telnet to connect to the normal SMTP port 25.
For instance, if the IP address of the server was 64.66.140.230, you would type: 
Telnet 64.66.140.230 25


Question:
Which port number is commonly used with HTTPS?

Explanation:
443

HTTPS stands for HTTP with SSL, the Secure Socket Layer. 
HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) sends data in plain text between unauthenticated peers over the Internet, which is an insecure network.

HTTPS provides for client and server-side authentication by using certificates, that have been signed by a Certification Agency. The client's web-browser must support SSL, as almost all do. The server must listen on a port other than 80, usually this is port 443.

When the client connects to the secure part of a website using 'https://', it uses port 443 instead of port 80. The server and the client negotiate the SSL protocol version to use and a private session is established. When the client and server exchange certificates,  they are able to encrypt and decrypt data they send to each other.


Question:
What is the default port of a POP3 server?

Explanation:
Port 110

Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP


Explanation:
PORT 23

Port 23 = Telnet
Port 21 = FTP
Port  25 = SMTP
Port 110 = POP3


Explanation:
PORT 80

Port 80 = HTTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 21 = FTP
Port  25 = SMTP


Question:
What is the default port for the FTP protocol?

Explanation:
PORT 21

Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP


Question:
What port would be used to resolve the name http:/www.examdrill.com?

Explanation:
80

This is an HTTP request for a web page. and HTTP uses port 80.
21 - FTP (File Transport Protocol).
23 - Telnet.
25 - SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol).
110 - POP3 (Post Office Protocol ver.3).
119 - NNTP (Network News Transport Protocol).


Question:
What is the default port of a SMTP server?

Explanation:
PORT 25

Port 21 = FTP
Port 23 = Telnet
Port 25 = SMTP
Port 80 = HTTP


Question:
SNMP (Simple Network Management protocol) uses which port?


Question:
What utility would produce this information?

Explanation:
Tracert 

Tracert (short for "Traceroute") traces a route through routers from one IP address to another. This number is represented in "hops". Tracert is used to find bottlenecks on specific routes.


Question:
What network utility is the following printout from?

Explanation:
ARP -a

ARP (Address Resolution protocol) is the first method used for name resolution. After these resolutions are made, the data is stored in cache memory. The ARP utility enables you to display and modify the IP to physical address translation tables.

ARP - a     Displays current ARP entries
ARP - (Inet_addr)   Displays a specific address
ARP -d      Deletes the host for the specified address
ARP -s      Adds the host to ARP chase as a static or permanent entry
ARP -(Eth_addr or If_addr) specifies a physical address


Question:
What utility can you use to find the bottleneck when it takes too long to access a server?


Question:
What protocol can you use to manage and retrieve information on bridges, routers and gateways?

Explanation:
SNMP

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to monitor network components.

.


Question:
What command displays the information in the exhibit?


Question:
Which would you use to display network statistics? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
Netstat -s, Netstat -S

Netstat switches are not case sensitive. Therefore either "-s" or "-S" will work.


Question:
Which utility do you use to transfer a file from a UNIX server to your workstation?

Explanation:
FTP

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is an Application layer protocol that is used to download files on the Internet.
Netstat is a utility used to display protocol statistics and current TCP/IP connections.
Telnet is a remote terminal emulation protocol used to provide access to a remote host.
NBTStat displays NetBIOS computer names that have been resolved to IP address, among other things


Question:
What is the correct syntax for adding IP address 199.266.10.5 and MAC address 00 90 32 98 34 06 as static entries in the ARP table?

Explanation:
Arp -s 199.266.10.5 / 00 90 32 98 34 06 

Arp -s adds a static, or permanent entry to the ARP table
the IP address is listed before the MAC address
Note: ARP uses lower case switches


Question:
Which TCP/IP utility determines the number of routers (hops) an IP packet passes through on its way to its source destination?

Explanation:
TRACERT

Tracert counts the number of hops it takes a packet to arrive at destination. Each router would count as one hop.


Question:
Which TCP/IP protocol is for networking management?

Explanation:
SNMP

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to monitor the status of network components and activity. Example: Network Monitor  (Agent) is an SNMP agent that must first be installed, then, it enables Administrators to monitor network traffic on each segment. This would be useful if your entire network gets bogged down.


Question:
Name three applications that are connection oriented.

Explanation:
FTP
Telnet
SMTP

Most of the more familiar Internet applications use TCP, the connection-oriented transport layer Internet service. These services include Telnet (remote login), SMTP (for electronic mail), FTP (for file transfer), and HTTP (for the Web). Applications that use TCP are considered connection-oriented.

Utilities like PING use User Datagram Protocol (UDP) and this makes them connection-less.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) and IP are not connection oriented.


Question:
What TCP/IP utility displays all current connections and ports to a workstation?

Explanation:
Netstat -a displays all current connections and ports to a workstation.


Question:
What commands can you use to show the route table in Windows NT 4.0 (Choose two.)

Explanation:
Netstat -r, Route

NETSTAT -r displays the routing table
ROUTE displays or modifies the local routing table


Question:
What command will display statistics on a per protocol basis?

Explanation:
netstat -s

There must be a space between the command ("netstat", )and the switch ("-s").


Question:
What can you use for terminal emulation to give the appearance of logging on locally to a Unix host?

Explanation:
Telnet

Telnet is the Internet standard protocol for remote login. Telnet runs on top of TCP/IP. A Telnet sessions allow a user to establish a dumb-terminal connection to a server and run processes on the server.


Explanation:
191.023.21.54

You determine the Network class by the value of the first octet. 
191.023.21.54  is a Class B Network address.
125.123.123.2 is a Class A  Network address.
192.128.32.56 is a Class C  Network address.
226.15.122.78 is out of range.
Class A: First octet is 1 - 126
Class B: First octet is 128 - 191
Class C: First octet is 192 - 223
Note: 127 is not available and 224 and higher is not available..


Explanation:
172.21.165.1/19 

Short for Classless Inter-Domain Routing, a new IP addressing scheme that replaces the older system based on classes A, B, and C. With CIDR, a single IP address can be used to designate many unique IP addresses. A CIDR IP address looks like a normal IP address except that it ends with a slash followed by a number, called the IP prefix. For example:  172.200.0.0/16


Question:
With TCP/IP, what is the maximum number of hosts that may exist on a Class C network?

Explanation:
254

With a Class C network, the first three octets identify the network segment. Only the last octet may be used to identify the individual hosts. 
Since the last octet may not contain either a "0" or a "255", there are only 254 possible addresses available.


Explanation:
128

IPv6 uses a 128 bit addressing scheme that will allow more that 70 octillion (70 followed by 27zeros) addresses. That's enough for each person on earth to have more than a million IP addresses. 

Note: IPv4 uses a 32 bit scheme that allows for around 17 million addresses.


Question:
What is the default subnet mask for class C networks?


Question:
An Internet IP address 128.192.223.1 belongs to what Network class?

Explanation:
Class B

You determine the Network class by the value of the first octet. In the above IP address the first octet is "128" so it is a Class B Network.

Class A: First octet is 1 - 126
Class B: First octet is 128 - 191
Class B: First octet is 192 - 223
Note: 127 is not available and 224 and higher is not available.


Explanation:
126.200.201.15

126.200.201.15 is the only valid Class A address listed
127.0.0.1 is the localhost loopback address
127.1.0.1 is invalid because 127 may be used in the first octet
196.110.105.0 is invalid because the fourth octet of an address may not be either 0 or 255


Question:
What would you type to test your local TCP/IP connection?  (Choose two.)

SelectionD:
Ping another workstation on your segment.

Explanation:
Ping 127.0.0.1 
Ping localhost 

The keyword here is "local". This is referring to your own computer. The IP address "127.0.0.1" is reserved as the loopback address for the local PC. The hostname for this loopback address is "localhost". Therefore, pinging Either the loopback address or the loopback hostname tests to see if your computer's TCP/IP settings are correct. 
Note that "localhost" is one word, there is no space between local and host.


Question:
Which class is the following IP address?

Explanation:
Class A

You could recognize this by the subnet mask which identifies which part of the IP address is the network and which is the host. Or by the first octet of the IP address. 
Class A Default Subnet mask = 255.0.0.0
Class B Default Subnet mask = 255.255.0.0
Class C Default Subnet mask = 255.255.255.0

Class A IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 1and 126.
Class B IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 128 and 191.
Class C IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 192 and 224.


Question:
What class is the IP address of the DNS server shown in the output below?

Explanation:
Class a

Using the default subnet mask the following is true:
Class A IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 1 and 126.
Class B IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 128 and 191.
Class C IP addresses have as their first octet numbers between 192 and 224.


Question:
What TCP header field do a network's end nodes use to keep track of packets in a connection?

Explanation:
Sequence Number

In order for TCP to provide reliable delivery, sequence numbers are used to keep track which data has been transmitted and received. TCP will arrange for retransmission if it determines that data has been lost.  
Upon a TCP/IP connection to a host, the host generates an Initial Sequence Number (ISN). This sequence number is used in the communication between itself and the host to help keep track of each packet and to ensure that the conversation continues properly. Both the host and the client generate and use these sequence numbers in TCP connections.


Question:
What is the anagram which describes the encapsulation of NetBEUI inside a TCP/IP packet, essentially making it routable?

Explanation:
NBTCP  

Microsoft's solution to the problem that NetBEUI cannot pass through routers is called "NetBEUI over TCP/IP". This allows NetBEUI to be routed (at least in a sense). Since TCP/IP was designed to be very flexible, it is possible to encase a NetBEUI packet inside a TCP/IP packet and send NetBEUI through a router. This is known as NetBEUI over TCP/IP or NBTCP for short.


Question:
Your network uses a SLIP protocol. You are having problems getting FTP to work, and you are also having problems connecting to the Internet. What should you do?

SelectionB:
Use Tracert find the bottleneck to the FTP server

Explanation:
Change to PPP

PPP is a much more robust protocol than the older SLIP. PPP has several advantages over SLIP. PPP uses authentication. It is designed to operate both over asynchronous connections and bit-oriented synchronous systems and it can configure connections to a remote network dynamically.


Question:
What protocols would the VPN use to connect your company's three remote LANs? (Choose three.)

Explanation:
TCP/IP, PPP, PPTP

These three protocols are used to create a VPN (Virtual Private Network).


Question:
Which network architecture provides guaranteed access for each computer on the network?

Explanation:
Token Ring  

Token Ring passes the token to each node in turn, guaranteeing access by each computer.
AppleTalk uses a collision avoidance but does not guarantee access.
Ethernet uses collision detection and does not guarantee access.
10Base5 is a cable type and not a network architecture.


Question:
What is a disadvantage of using a bus topology on a large network?

SelectionA:
Coax cable is very susceptible to cable faults

SelectionC:
Each node must be terminated and grounded

SelectionD:
Extremely sensitive to electrical interference

Explanation:
Coax cable is very susceptible to cable faults   

Coax cable is relatively inexpensive. (At least thinnet is) which rules out expense.
Only the nodes on each end must be terminated and only one of them can be grounded.
Coax cable is somewhat resistant to electrical interference.


Question:
Which network topology has two or more network cables attached to each computer and provides for the greatest fault tolerance?

Explanation:
Mesh

Mesh networks would require multiple connections from each computer.
Token ring needs two sets of wires, but they are generally enclosed in a single cable and use a single connector on the NIC.
Star and Bus networks require only one cable per computer


Question:
Which topology uses the least amount of cable?

Explanation:
Bus

Bus topologies typically run from computer to computer and are likely to use less cable than other topologies.


Question:
Which WAN technology provides transmission speeds more than 100 Mbps?

Explanation:
ATM

ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is an advanced packet switching technology that can provide speeds up to 622 Mbps using fixed length 53 byte cells.
T3 lines uses 672  64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of44.736 Mbps
ISDN Basic Rate (BRI) = 128 Kbps
ISDN Primary Rate (PRI) uses a full T1 line
FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) uses fiber optics and Token Passing to operate at speeds up to 100 Mbps on a true physical ring.


Question:
What topology does the network diagram below depict?

Explanation:
Star

Even though it doesn't look like a star, all the hosts are connected through the hub. This is what makes it a star.


Explanation:
Bus

All of the machines are attached at one and only one place to the cable. A break anywhere along the main cable would mean a disruption of the whole network.


Explanation:
ROM, Firmware

Firmware is similar to software, except is generally stored in Read Only Memory (ROM). Some systems may store firmware in "Flash" memory. Flash memory allows firmware updates to be made through software, while firmware stored in ROM typically requires the chip to be replaced in order to upgrade the firmware. 

ROM (Read Only Memory) is frequently used for firmware. A good example is the BIOS chip.


Question:
The address "00-60-08-75-43-d7" could be called which of these names? (Choose four.)

Explanation:
MAC address
Ethernet Address
Physical address
Hardware address

The six byte hex number given above is a MAC (Media Access Control) address and may also be referred to as Hardware address, Ethernet address, or Physical address. MAC addresses are burned into the NIC and should not be changed.
IP Address is a "logical" address that may be changed with software, or if DHCP is enabled, it is changed dynamically.
Subnet Mask is not an address, it defines a range of IP addresses that a subnet may use.


Question:
What should you do first when installing a new piece of hardware or software?

SelectionC:
Try it and figure it out for yourself. (Real men don't read directions.)

SelectionD:
Call manufacturer's tech support hotline.

Explanation:
View the Readme file.

Manufacturers generally put the most up to date information in the Readme files which accompany their products. In lots of cases, the Readme file has more recent info that the instruction manual. 
The manufacturer's website may have the latest info too, but you should view the  Readme file  first.
You should make a reasonable effort to solve problems yourself before calling Tech support hotlines.


Question:
Where would you look for possible updates to keep the network up to date. (Choose two.)

Explanation:
Patch
Service Pack

Either a software patch or Service Pack for the Microsoft OS would be a way to keep the Network up to date.

More RAM would likely make the server or workstation run faster, but that's not the same as keeping it up to date with the latest improvements to software and the OS


Question:
What transport technology translates names of network hosts into network addresses?

Explanation:
Name Resolution 

With UNIX networks, this is done with DNS servers.  Microsoft networks also use WINS servers to translate NetBIOS names to IP addresses.


SelectionA:
Protects your data from unauthorized users

SelectionB:
Isolates IP addresses from people on the Internet

Explanation:
Protects your data from unauthorized users 

Firewalls check all network traffic from an outside source and only allow access by authorized users.


Question:
Most of your network users access the same web page on the Internet each day. You already have a proxy server. What could you add to speed up performance?

Explanation:
An HTTP proxy 

An HTTP Proxy caches web pages for faster access.
An IP Proxy, sometimes simply referred to as a Proxy Server displays a single IP address to the Internet while allowing many users access to the Internet through the single IP address.
An FTP proxy is used for file transfers.
WEB memory - who knows what they'll think of next?


Question:
In which ways are Client/Server networks better than Peer-to-Peer networks? (Choose four.)

SelectionA:
Better security on Client/Server network.

SelectionB:
Better performance on a Client/Server network.

SelectionC:
Client/Server is easier to administer on large networks.

SelectionD:
Backup is better on Client/Server networks.

SelectionE:
Lower cost equipment for Client/Server networks.

SelectionF:
Less skill required for administrator on Client/Server network

Explanation:
Security is better on a Client/Server network. 
Performance is better on a Client/Server network. 
Client/Server is easier to administer on large networks. 
Backup is better on Client/Server networks.

Client/Server networks use centralized security, which is more effective than peer to peer networks. Client/Server networks can assign user rights down to the file level, meaning that some users may have specified rights to a specific file and others may be prohibited form accessing it. Or they may have read rights, but not be able to edit the file.

Overall, Client/Server networks perform better than peer to peer networks and can be administered more efficiently. But Client/Server networks require a highly trained administrator. Peer to Peer networks do not require the high level of technical expertise of Client/Server networks, but they become very time consuming to manage as the network grows. This why the centralized administration of Client/Server networks is more efficient. Client/Server networks require more expensive hardware and software, like servers and server software. Backup strategies are much more efficient and manageable with Client/Server networks.


Question:
Which provides services for network users?

Explanation:
Server

Servers may provide a variety of services such as file storage, centralized database (SQL Server), network security, etc.
A workstation typically depends on the server for some services. The other two are bogus choices.


Question:
What can you use to reduce broadcast storms?

Explanation:
Use a Router 

All the other choices would pass broadcasts and would be of no help. Broadcast storms are a sudden flood of messages that clogs up your network. It is like everyone talking at once on a telephone line.


Question:
What is the reserved loopback IP address (IPv4) that can be used to test the configuration of the local IP device?

Explanation:
127.0.0.1 

127.0.0.1 is the reserved loopback address for the local computer. It automatically has the name "Localhost" assigned to it.
Ping 127.0.0.1 and Ping Localhost have exactly the same results.


Question:
You have implemented a star topology for your network with a mesh between the routers. What kind of topology are you using?

Explanation:
Hybrid

Most networks use a mix of the four topologies. This is known as a hybrid. This is simply a catch-all term for any combination of the other topologies.


Question:
You have a Windows 98 machine with a FAT32 partition and want to connect it to your companies network. However, the server you need to connect to is running UNIX with an UFS (UNIX File System) partition. What can you do to enable your Windows machine to read the data on an NTFS partition?

Explanation:
Do nothing 

The whole idea of the OSI is to make dissimilar systems communicate. Your request for data will travel down through the physical layer and be read on the other machine without regard to what machine made the request.

In addition, Windows 2000 Server can run on three types of file systems: FAT (File Allocation Table), FAT32, and NTFS (NT File System or New Technology File System). FAT is the traditional file system of DOS, Windows, and Windows 95, offering support for long file names.  FAT32 is the default file system for Windows 98.


Question:
How many bits are Ethernet hardware addresses?

Explanation:
48 bits

Ethernet hardware addresses are 48 bits, expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits (0-9, plus A-F, capitalized). This gives a theoretical 281,474,976,710,656 addresses. This is more than 56,000 MAC addresses for every man, woman and child on earth! But just imagine that every computer and piece of networking equipment which could in the future be Internet enabled, will need a MAC address. This includes devices like ovens, security alarms or video recorders.


Question:
You have four computers each ten meters from the next closest computer on a peer-to-peer network. Using a bus topology how much cable would you use to connect them?

Explanation:
30 meters

This is a simple math problem. Let us not assume you had to route the cable up the wall and through the plenum. Four points 10 meters apart can be directly connected using three lines, each 10 meters in length.


Question:
Your are connecting a UNIX/Linux workstation to an outside WAN server. Which two steps should you perform to properly configure eth0?

Explanation:
Set the subnet mask.
Set the default gateway. 

Never set the MAC address. Any node whether UNIX or Windows or Macintosh, will need an IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to access any resources on a WAN because all resources are on the other sides of routers.


Question:
How many nodes may exist on a 10BaseT network?

Explanation:
1024

By using active hubs there may be up to 1024 nodes per 10BaseT network.


Question:
Your network uses 10Base2 cable which is 180 meters long, each end terminated with a 50-ohm terminator. Both terminators are grounded. There are 25 Workstations connected to the cable. Why won't it work?

SelectionB:
10Base2 cable does not need terminators.

Explanation:
Too many grounds.   

With 10Base2 each end of the trunk segment is terminated in 50-ohm terminator but only one of the terminators is grounded.


Explanation:
100 meters

The 100BASE-TX specifications allow a segment of up to 100 meters. Two 100 meter 100BASE-TX segments can be connected together through a single Class I or Class II repeater. This provides a system with a total diameter of 200 meters.


Question:
What is the maximum length of a Cable Segment for 10Base2?

Explanation:
185 METERS

Some specifications for a 10Base2 Thin Ethernet network are as follows:
- maximum number of trunk segments = 5 
- maximum trunk segment length = 607 feet (185 meters) 
- maximum network trunk cable = 3035 feet (925 meters) 
- maximum number of stations on a trunk segment = 30 
- minimum distance between T connectors = 1.5 feet (0.5 meters) 
Also:
- each end of the trunk segment is terminated in 50-ohms 
- one of the terminators is grounded 
- connector splices are kept to a minimum 

Cabling 
- BNC-T type connectors 
- RG58-AU 50-ohm cable, 0.2" (Coaxial Cable)


Question:
Which of the following is a term which means transmitting multiple signals over the same cable simultaneously? (Choose 2)

Explanation:
Broadband, Multiplexing

Broadband use frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) to simultaneously transmit multiple signals over the same media by assigning a separate portion of the available frequency spectrum to each of the individual channels.


Question:
The diagram below is a representation of which rule?

Explanation:
The 5/4/3 Rule

If you're working in a thick Ethernet environment, you must know it's limits. You need to know the 5/4/3 rule.

According to the 5/4/3 rule, the maximum number of segments in a thick Ethernet environment is five, and these five segments are connected by four repeaters. But not every segment can have computers attached. In fact, only three segments can have computers attached; the remaining two segments can only be used to extend the length of the network.

10BASE2 and 10BASE-T also follow the 5/4/3 rule.


Question:
What are the advantages of POTS? (Choose three.)

Explanation:
Easy to configure. 
Least expensive. 
Is readily available. 

POTS (plain Old Telephone Service) can only run up to 56 Kbps. You may see POTS refereed to as Publicly Switched Telephone Network (PSTN).


Question:
As it travels along a cable a signal becomes distorted and weakened. What is the term for this?

Explanation:
Attenuation

Crosstalk is where signals from adjacent wires interfere with each other.
Degeneration make sound right but that is not the answer.
Fragmentation is for disk drives


Question:
What does the 5-4-3 rule mean in networking terminology?

SelectionA:
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 populated Segments

SelectionD:
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 Hubs per Segment

Explanation:
5 Segments, 4 Repeaters and 3 populated Segments 

The 5-4-3 rule applies to Ethernet bus networks. It specifies that the network can have up to five segments connected by four repeaters. Only three of the segments may be populated. 
For 10Base5 (Thicknet), there may be 100 nodes per segment. For 10Base2 (Thinnet) there may be only 30 nodes per segment.


Question:
The connectors labeled TX and RX in the exhibit represent what?


Question:
In a token ring network, how would a patch cable be used?


Question:
What cable may be used for a distance of 1KM without having to use a repeater?

Explanation:
10BASEFX

We normally associate Fiber Optics with 100BaseFX, but 10BASEFX is a legitimate choice.
10Base2: no more than 185 meters
100BaseT: no more than 100 meters
10BaseT: no more than 100 meters


Question:
Which 100BaseT Fast Ethernet uses two pairs of Cat 5 cable?

Explanation:
100BaseTX requires two pairs of Cat 5 cable.

UTP is not a form of Fast Ethernet.
10Base2 uses thinnet cable.


Question:
Which cable is most resistant to wire-tapping or EMI?

Explanation:
FIBER OPTIC

Fiber Optic if impervious to EMI and cannot be tapped without disrupting the network communication.


Explanation:
UTP

UTP Cat3 or Cat5 may be used with 10BaseT


Question:
What is the maximum cable length for 10BaseT with Cat 5 cable?


Question:
Which cable supports a speed of 100 Mbps on a 100BaseTX Network?

Explanation:
Category 5   

Fiber optics can support speeds of 100 Mbps but easily recognizable by the "F" for fiber, as in  100BaseFX. Coax will only support 10Mbps.
Cat 3 may be used for 100 Mbps in some circumstances but definitely not for 100BaseTX.


Question:
What would you associate with 802.3 100BaseT Fast Ethernet?

Explanation:
UTP

100BaseT uses Cat-5 Unshielded Twisted Pair cables.


Question:
What is the unique characteristic of a crossover cable?

SelectionA:
Transmit and receive wires are reversed.

SelectionB:
Transmit and receive wires are grounded.

Explanation:
Transmit and receive wires are reversed.

In a crossover cable, the transmit and receive wires are reversed. This is useful for connecting two servers together through their respective network ports. A crossover cable is also used to connect to hubs or switches together if they do not contain an uplink port that performs this wire crossover.


Question:
What media is most likely to be used with ARCNet?

Explanation:
RG62

ARCNet can use different types of cable, but the most common is RG62 (93 ohm coax). UTP and fiber optics may also be used with ARCNet.
Short for Attached Resource Computer network, ARCNet is one of the oldest, simplest, and least expensive types of local-area network. ARCNet was introduced by Datapoint Corporation in 1977. It uses a token-ring architecture, supports data rates of 2.5 Mbps, and connects up to 255 computers. A special advantage of ARCNet is that it permits various types of transmission media -- twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable, and fiber optic cable -- to be mixed on the same network. 

A new specification, called ARCNet Plus, will support data rates of 20 Mbps.


Question:
Which has a maximum length of 25 meters per segment?

Explanation:
1000Base-CX Gigabit Ethernet (copper)

Ethernet Maximum Cable Segment Length
10Base5-  500 Meters
10Base2 - 185 Meters
10Base-T - 100 Meters
10Base-FL -  2000 Meters
100Base-TX  - 100 Meters
100Base-FX  -2000 Meters
100Base-T4  - 100 Meters
100Base-T2  - 100 Meters
1000Base-CX - 25 Meters

For more info on Gigabit Ethernet: http://www.rad.com/networks/2001/ethernet/next.htm


Question:
What stops transmission signals from bouncing at the opposite ends of the network’s end nodes?

Explanation:
Terminators

On a 10Base2 network, a 50 ohm terminator is attached to the "T" connector on the last workstation on each end of the cable. This keeps the signal from bouncing or reflecting back down the cable.


Question:
If your network is bogged down and you are using a hub, what is your first choice to speed things up?

SelectionD:
Switch to a faster protocol like NetBEUI

Explanation:
Switch

A switch can be configured to direct network traffic between specific host at the full bandwidth and would be the first choice to accomplish this objective.

Switching to NetBEUI would slow things down even more. Even though it is faster on smaller networks, it communicates with broadcast storms and would make this matter worse.


Question:
Which of the following provides bandwidth of about 1.5Mbps?

Explanation:
T1

T1 lines uses twenty-four 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps
T2 lines uses ninety-six 64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of 6.312 Mbps
T3 lines uses 672  64K B-channels for a total bandwidth of44.736 Mbps
ISDN Basic Rate (BRI) = 128 Kbps
ISDN Primary Rate (PRI) uses a full T1 line


Question:
Gigabit Ethernet cannot be run on copper cable. True or False?

Explanation:
False

This statement is false. The Gigabit Ethernet standards define four physical layer signaling systems: 1000BASE-SX (short wavelength fiber), 1000BASE-LX (long wavelength fiber), 1000BASE-CX (short run copper) and 1000BASE-T (100-meter, four-pair Category 5 UTP).


Explanation:
1000 Mbps

Gigabit Ethernet has been demonstrated to be a viable solution for increased bandwidth requirements for growing networks. Early implementation of the technology will be in high-speed backbones and specialized workgroups. As desktop speeds increase and LAN application patterns change, Gigabit Ethernet will begin to migrate to the desktop for general applications. To be most effective, Gigabit Ethernet must be capable of operating over widely-installed cable plants.


Explanation:
NIC manufacturer

Each Network Card (NIC) has a burned in MAC address, This is done by the manufacturer of the NIC card. 

You can't get a MAC address from a web site.

The InterNIC is a resource organization for the Internet.

The Network administrator should stick with the default MAC addresses.


Question:
In a wireless network what replaces the physical cables?

Explanation:
Radio signals 

In a wireless network the physical cables are replaced by radio signals. The IEEE 802.11 standard defines wireless networking, with most devices adhering to the updated 802.11b. To implement wireless networking, you simply add a wireless access point to the physical network; it handles the traffic between the wireless network cards.


Question:
Pin 2 on a loopback plug or crossover cable is connected to which pin on the other side on a UTP implementation?

Explanation:
Pin 6.

In the implementation of a crossover, the wires on each end of the cable are crossed. Transmit to Receive and Receive to Transmit on each side. Pin 1 on one side connects to pin 3 on the other side, and pin 2 connects to pin 6 on the opposite end.
The purpose of a loopback plug is to connect the output pins on the interface to the input pins so that any data transmitted over the interface is "looped back" and received at the same interface.


Question:
What is the maximum length of a 1000Base-CX segment?

Explanation:
25m 

1000BASE-CX (two pairs of 150-ohm shielded twisted pair cable for a maximum length of 25 meters) .


Explanation:
D 

Item D is an ST connector used for fiber optics


Question:
The connector labeled AUI relate to what? (Choose all that apply)

Explanation:
Thicknet, DIX, Vampire tap, 10Base5

AUI connectors are used with Thicknet cable , also called 10Base5.
AUI connectors adapt between different cabling types and are 
also known as a DIX (Digital, Intel, Xerox) connectors. 
Vampire taps are used with Thicknet cabling to attach the transceiver
to the Thicknet backbone.


Question:
The connector A in the diagram is for .....

Explanation:
BNC (Coax)

Item A is a BNC connector and is used for coax


Question:
The connector C in the diagram is for .....

Explanation:
RJ-45

Item C is an RJ45 connector and it is used for UTP cable.
Note: RJ11 only has four pins.


Question:
What is the connector called in 10Base5?

Explanation:
AUI

AUI (Attachment Unit Interface) is a connector used with Thicknet (also called 10Base5). In this case the Transceiver is typically attached to the drop cable which attaches to the main cable with a "Vampire" tap. 
AUI connectors may also be called DIX connectors (Digital/Intel/Xerox), the original developers of Ethernet.


Question:
You have an older coax NIC and wish to use a transceiver to connect it to a CAT 5 cable. Which connector would the transceiver connect to on the NIC?

Explanation:
Diagram B in our exhibit is an AUI connector. This is used for older coax connections.

Newer coax cable connectors use the BNC connectors.


Question:
What connectors are used on SCSI cables? (Choose three.)


Question:
What does connector B in the diagram represent?


Question:
Which is used with the IEEE 802.3 10Base2 standard?

Explanation:
BNC CONNECTORS

10Base2 uses BNC connectors
RJ45 connectors are used with Unshielded Twisted Pair (10BaseT)
STP cable is used with Token Ring
RG-11 connectors are used for telephones.


Question:
You have a 10baseT network and want to add one more client. You only have an old network card which has an AUI connector.  Which of the following would you use to connect the client to the network?

Explanation:
Transceiver

Transceivers can be used to convert the physical connection from one Ethernet type to another.


Question:
You ordered a T1 link to your LAN and you need to connect it to a router. Your router has a V.35 interface. You need a special device to connect it to the T1 line. This device is labeled in our diagram with the letter A. What is this device called?

Explanation:
CSU/DSU

A CSU/DSU (channel service unit/data service unit) is required to interface the T1 line from your ISP to your router. These devices are used to connect LANs to WANs. Somewhat like a modem the CSU/DSU takes care of handshaking, error correction and data stream translation.


Question:
The devices in the center of the diagram are what?

Explanation:
MAU

The Ring In and Ring Out ports, along with the double wires going to each workstation indicate this is a Token Ring network. Also referred to as a Star Wired Ring.
That means the device is a MAU
Note the single line running from the Ring In to the Ring Out ports. There is no need for double wires to connect these two ports. Their purpose is to complete the "ring" when only one MAU is used. If we had  more than one MAU, they would connect the MAUs together.   Also, in reality, the double lines going to the workstations would be contained in a single cable with two or more pairs of conductors in it.


Question:
If you need to have 115200 bps of transmission rate for serial communication, your equipment needs to conform to which UART standard?

Explanation:
UART 16550 

Virtually all personal computers use a family of chips produced by National Semiconductor to run serial ports. Known as UARTs (universal asynchronous receiver-transmitters), these chips convert an 8-bit wide parallel data path to a 1-bit wide serial path. The following is a list of several of changes the UART has undergone through during the PC era.

INS8250 The original chip used in the IBM PC, the INS8250 was unreliable at speeds over 9600 bps. 
16450 Designed for 286-based PCs, the 16450 is the first UART that reliably operated at 9600 bps and above. 
16550 The 16550 allowed use of more than one DMA channel to achieve improved throughput over the 16450. 
16550A Is an improved version of the 16550. It adds support for First in-First Out (FIFO) communication. This is the only UART that should be installed in current PCs or add-on cards that are used to provide expansion card-based COM ports.


Explanation:
EISA

EISA (Extended Industry Standard Architecture) accepts ISA cards.
PCI and MCA do not accept ISA cards.


Question:
Which type of  hub boosts the signal strength?

Explanation:
ACTIVE HUB

Active hubs boost and regenerate the signal strength. They do not correct errors but they do regenerate the signal.
Hubs per/say are not used with Token Ring. Token Ring uses MAUs.
Passive hubs do not boost or regenerate the signal, they simply pass it along.
Brouters don't relate to this question.


Question:
A network is congested. Currently all the devices are connected through a hub as shown below. Which solution would best decrease congestion on the network?

Explanation:
Replace the hub with a switch

A switch will make "routing" decisions based on the destination MAC address instead of broadcasting the signal to all ports like a hub.

A second hub or repeater would not reduce congestion. A router is overkill.


Question:
An application is not working properly. Where would you look for patch files? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
Manufacturer's Web site
Manufacturer's technical support CD

Manufacturer's Technical support is typically used for getting help if you're having trouble getting their product to work properly they may refer you to their web site for patches, but don't expect them to download them for you.
Readme files usually are simple text or html files with the most update info that may not have been printed in the manual.


Question:
You have installed a NIC in your workstation and have configured the IRQ and memory address, what do you do next? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
Install the NIC software driver
Attach the network cable to the NIC   

Diagnostics programs are a troubleshooting measure and are not usually part of adapter card installation.


Question:
What kind of hub has a limitation of thirty meters?

Explanation:
Passive

Passive hubs can be no more than 30 meters (100 feet) from an active hub
Passive hubs can pass the signal only from one port to the next; cannot regenerate the signal.
Passive hubs have no power supply; cannot be linked
Passive hubs require termination of unused ports


Question:
Which of the following technologies uses fiber optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
SONET
OC3

This could be deducted just by remeberingwhat the letters in the anagrams stood for. Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) and Optical Carrier 3 (OC).


Question:
In a wireless network what handles the traffic between the wireless network cards and the physical network?

Explanation:
Access point

To implement wireless networking, you simply add a wireless access point to the physical network; it handles the traffic between the wireless network cards.


Question:
You are troubleshooting a NIC on a Unix machine. You use the Ifconfig command to find the physical address of the card is 00:0:0C:63:84:30. How do you find the manufacturer of the card without opening the case?

Explanation:
Examine the first 12 digits.

First, Ifconfig is the equivilent of Ipconfig on a Windows NT and 2000 machine. The first 24 bits/three fields (00:0:0C in this case, which means it is a Cisco NIC) identify the NIC manufacturer and are also known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI). Given a MAC address, you can enter the value at http://www.coffer.com/mac_find/ to identify the manufacturer. This can be a great help in troubleshooting known problems with certain cards. A few manufacturers numbers are below if you would like to scroll down.

00000C  Cisco
00000E  Fujitsu
00000F  NeXT
000010  Sytek
00001D  Cabletron
000020  DIAB (Data Intdustrier AB)
000022  Visual Technology
00002A  TRW
000032  GPT Limited (reassigned from GEC Computers Ltd)
00005A  S & Koch
00005E  IANA
000065  Network General
00006B  MIPS
000077  MIPS
00007A  Ardent
000089  Cayman Systems  Gatorbox
000093  Proteon
00009F  Ameristar Technology
0000A2  Wellfleet
0000A3  Network Application Technology
0000A6  Network General (internal assignment, not for products)
0000A7  NCD             X-terminals
0000A9  Network Systems
0000AA  Xerox           Xerox machines
0000B3  CIMLinc
0000B7  Dove            Fastnet
0000BC  Allen-Bradley
0000C0  Western Digital
0000C5  Farallon phone net card
0000C6  HP Intelligent Networks Operation (formerly Eon Systems)
0000C8  Altos
0000C9  Emulex          Terminal Servers
0000D7  Dartmouth College (NED Router)
0000DD  Gould
0000DE  Unigraph
0000E2  Acer Counterpoint
0000EF  Alantec
0000FD  High Level Hardvare (Orion, UK)
000102  BBN             BBN internal usage (not registered)
001700  Kabel
008064  Wyse Technology / Link Technologies
00802D  Xylogics, Inc.  Annex terminal servers
00808C  Frontier Software Development
0080C2  IEEE 802.1 Committee
0080D3  Shiva
00AA00  Intel
00DD00  Ungermann-Bass
00DD01  Ungermann-Bass
020701  Racal InterLan
020406  BBN             BBN internal usage (not registered)
026086  Satelcom MegaPac (UK)
02608C  3Com            IBM PC; Imagen; Valid; Cisco
02CF1F  CMC             Masscomp; Silicon Graphics; Prime EXL
080002  3Com (Formerly Bridge)
080003  ACC (Advanced Computer Communications)
080005  Symbolics       Symbolics LISP machines
080008  BBN
080009  Hewlett-Packard
08000A  Nestar Systems
08000B  Unisys
080011  Tektronix, Inc.
080014  Excelan         BBN Butterfly, Masscomp, Silicon Graphics
080017  NSC
08001A  Data General
08001B  Data General
08001E  Apollo
080020  Sun             Sun machines
080022  NBI
080025  CDC
080026  Norsk Data (Nord)
080027  PCS Computer Systems GmbH
080028  TI              Explorer
08002B  DEC
08002E  Metaphor
08002F  Prime Computer  Prime 50-Series LHC300
080036  Intergraph      CAE stations
080037  Fujitsu-Xerox
080038  Bull
080039  Spider Systems
080041  DCA Digital Comm. Assoc.
080046  Sony
080047  Sequent
080049  Univation
08004C  Encore
08004E  BICC
080056  Stanford University
08005A  IBM
080067  Comdesign
080068  Ridge
080069  Silicon Graphics
08006E  Concurrent      Masscomp
080075  DDE (Danish Data Elektronik A/S)
08007C  Vitalink        TransLAN III
080080  XIOS
080086  Imagen/QMS
080087  Xyplex          terminal servers
080089  Kinetics        AppleTalk-Ethernet interface
08008B  Pyramid
08008D  XyVision        XyVision machines
080090  Retix Inc       Bridges
800010  AT&T
AA0000  DEC             obsolete


Question:
A user calls your help desk. She is having problems connecting to the network after you have installed and tested a wireless NIC in her laptop. What two factors should you consider when troubleshooting?

SelectionB:
Obstacles between the NIC and the access point

SelectionD:
The number of users on the network segment

Explanation:
Obstacles between the NIC and the access point
The distance to the access point

Problems with wireless networks can arise from interference or a signal attempting to pass through too many obstacles (walls, filing cabinets, floors, etc.). This can especially become a problem with laptops that users carry from one location to another. Most wireless NIC vendors include utilities with their cards that enable you to see the quality of the signal you're receiving.


Question:
To be able to interrupt the CPU's activities what must a device use?


SelectionA:
System clock, and cannot be used for other devices

SelectionB:
Keyboard, and cannot be used by other devices

Explanation:
System clock, and cannot be used for other devices


Question:
NICs are usually assigned which Base I/O Port?


Question:
You assign a network adapter to IRQ3. With which port it will conflict?

Explanation:
COM2

COM1 uses IRQ4
COM2 uses IRQ3
LPT1 uses IRQ7
LPT2 uses IRQ5


Question:
Which protocol suite is recognized on all platforms?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

TCP/IP is recognized on practically all Network Operating Systems.
IPX/SPX is a popular Novell suite but is losing popularity to TCP/IP
FTP and DHCP are protocols but not protocol suites.


Question:
What protocol do you use to connect a Windows NT Server to NetWare.

Explanation:
IPX

IPX is the Network layer protocol for Novell NetWare. Its counterpart in the TCP/IP suite is IP


Question:
What protocol recovers from lost or corrupted packets during transmission?

Explanation:
TCP

TCP is a transport layer protocol and the transport layer is responsible for successful transmission and reception of data. If data packets are lost, the transport layer initiates the request for the data to be resent. Therefore it is considered "reliable".


Explanation:
NetBIOS

NetBIOS uses fifteen character names for address resolution. There is a 16th character which is used by the system and may not be used as part of the name. 

IP addresses consist of four octets such as (110.143.201.013)
Novell or IPX addresses are made up of the MAC address and the network number.
TCP is a transport layer protocol and is not routable.


Question:
What is the primary network layer routing protocol used by AppleTalk?

Explanation:
DDP

The Datagram Delivery Protocol (DDP) is the primary network layer routing protocol in the AppleTalk protocol suite that provides a best-effort connectionless Datagram service between AppleTalk sockets.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the counterpart to DDP in the TCP/IP suite of protocols.
PPP (Point-to Point Protocol), is the Internet standard for transmitting network layer datagrams over serial point-to-point links.


Question:
What are the four main media-access implementations for the AppleTalk protocol?

Explanation:
EtherTalk
LocalTalk
TokenTalk
FDDITalk.

These data link layer implementations perform address translation and other functions that allow proprietary AppleTalk protocols to communicate over industry-standard interfaces, which include IEEE 802.3 (using EtherTalk), Token Ring/IEEE 802.5 (using TokenTalk), and FDDI (using FDDITalk). In addition, AppleTalk implements its own network interface, known as LocalTalk.

As with other popular protocol suites, such as TCP/IP and IPX, the AppleTalk architecture maintains media-access dependencies on such lower-layer protocols as Ethernet, Token Ring, and FDDI. Four main media-access implementations exist in the AppleTalk protocol suite: EtherTalk, LocalTalk, TokenTalk, and FDDITalk.


Question:
What is the time synchronization protocol used for the Internet?

Explanation:
NTP

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is an Internet standard protocol. It enables client computers to maintain system time synchronization to the US Naval Observatory Master Clocks in Washington, DC and Colorado Springs, CO. 

NTP, which runs on the client program, sends periodic time requests to one or more NTP servers.


Question:
SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol) supports both NetBEUI and TCP/IP.

Explanation:
FALSE

SLIP is an older line protocol and supports TCP/IP only. It must be manually configured.


SelectionA:
Encapsulate NetBIOS packets in TCP/IP frames.

Explanation:
Encapsulate NetBIOS packets in TCP/IP frames.

NetBIOS is a non routable protocol, along with NetBEUI. However NetBIOS packets may be encapsulated in a routable protocol like TCP/IP.


Explanation:
NetBEUI

NetBEUI is not routable, all the others are.


Question:
Which provides a simple email service, is used for uploading mail from your client to the server and moves messages from one mail server to another?

Explanation:
SMTP

SMTP (Simple Mail Transport Protocol) is for uploading mail from your client to the server, and moving messages from one mail server to another. Do not confuse this with POP3, which allows a client computer to retrieve electronic mail from a POP3 server.

POP3 is for downloading mail from the server and is typically used where the client is not always connected to the server. Phone line Internet connection services typically use POP3 to retrieve mail from the server.
IMAP is used for retrieving mail from the server when you are connected all the time. IMAP has more capability for selecting and downloading mail than POP3, but POP3 is more common for the typical Internet user.
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring specific network
DHCP(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used for automatically configuring TCP/IP settings on large networks.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for copying files between computers.


Question:
With Windows 9.x, what protocol makes the fastest connection on a Peer-to-Peer Network?

Explanation:
NWLink IPX

Of the protocols suites listed above, NWLink IPX is the fastest.


Question:
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are connection oriented?  (Choose two.)

Explanation:
FTP
HTTP

FTP is connection oriented.
HTTP is connection oriented.
TFTP is not connection oriented.
NetBEUI is NOT considered by CompTIA to be connection-oriented

Whether HTTP is or is not connection oriented is controversial. Many people miss this question!

The correct answer, (from CompTIA's point of view) is HTTP and FTP are connection-oriented. Technically, the "connection" takes place at the Transport layer, and both of these are Application layer protocols. However, they both use TCP to transport the data and TCP is the connection-oriented transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite. For all practical purposes, HTTP and FTP operate through a reliable (TCP) connection. This is why CompTIA considers them connection-oriented.

TFTP, (Trivial File Transport Protocol), uses UDP, (User Datagram Protocol) as a transport mechanism. UDP is the connection-less transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite and is used for situations where speed is more important than accurate data transfer. An example would be audio and video files that require a lot of bandwidth. Using a connection-oriented transport mechanism would slow these files down so much, it would be unacceptable. Here again, TFTP is an Application layer protocol, but since it uses UDP, the transfer of data is unreliable, (connection-less).


Question:
Which protocol is used for dynamic route discovery with TCP/IP?

Explanation:
RIP

RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a distance vector protocol which counts the number of hops a path requires, and determines the best route for packets to take.
DNS and WINS are used for name resolution.
DHCP is used for Dynamic IP addressing


Question:
What can you use for "LAN to LAN communication" when you have multiple LANs?  (Choose three.)

Explanation:
TCP/IP, IPX, AppleTalk

To communicate among different LANs, you need routable protocols.  TCP/IP, IPX, AppleTalk are routable, while NetBEUI is not.


Question:
Which two protocols use a connection oriented transport?

Explanation:
FTP, HTTP 

FTP uses TCP as a transport layer mechanism
HTTP uses TCP as a transport layer mechanism
TFTP uses UDP as a transport layer mechanism
CompTIA does not consider NetBEUI to be connection-oriented

TCP is the connection-oriented transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite
UDP in the connection-less  transport protocol of the TCP/IP suite


Question:
What do UNIX servers use to send email between themselves?

Explanation:
SMTP

And it is not just UNIX servers which use SMTP to send email. 

POP3 is used by clients for downloading email from servers. The other two are not mail protocols.


Question:
Novell supports which protocols? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation:
TCP/IP, IPX, PPP, AppleTalk

IPX/SPX were the original Novell NetWare protocols. In addition, Novell also supports TCP/IP, PPP (Point to Point Protocol), and AppleTalk. Since the release of NetWare 5 TCP/IP is the Novell protocol of choice.


Question:
Which protocols are routable?  (Choose two.)

Explanation:
IP
IPX

This is a bit tricky. IP and IPX are both routable. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) by itself is not routable. It depends on IP for routing. Remember that routing is a function which resides at the network layer of the OSI model. TCP resides at the transport layer.

NetBIOS is not routable.


Question:
Which protocol suite is PPTP associated with?

Explanation:
TCP/IP

PPTP involves encapsulating data within IP packets that can transport information that wouldn't otherwise conform to Internet addressing standards. Using PPTP, data from LANs which use TCP/IP, IPX. NetBEUI, AppleTalk, or other protocols, can be tunneled through IP packets, thus establishing a Virtual Private network through existing Internet connections.


Question:
What protocol would you use to establish  a secure and encrypted communication, (a Virtual Private Network), between two locations over the Internet?

Explanation:
PPTP

PPTP Point to Point Tunneling Protocol a new line protocol used for VPNs (Virtual Private Network)
PPP: Point to Point Protocol is a line protocol used for remote communications.
SLIP: Serial Line Internet Protocol is an older TCP/IP only line protocol.
UDP: Used Datagram Protocol is a fast and efficient connectionless protocol .


Question:
What TCP/IP protocol is used to download email from a server?

Explanation:
POP3 

POP3 is for downloading email from a server.
SMTP is used for uploading to the server and to transfer e-mail between Internet servers.


Question:
Clients can request IP addresses with a PPP connection.

Explanation:
True 

Don't read anything into this question. A dial-up connection uses PPP. The client requests (with a DHCPREQUEST message from client to DHCP server indicating that the client would
like to receive the offered IP address) an IP address from the remote server via PPP.


Question:
Which of the following protocols can be used to verify the successful use of the FTP utility?

Explanation:
TCP

TCP is the connection-oriented Transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP suite. It is the Transport layer that provides error checking and verifies successful transmission of data. Therefore TCP is the answer.


Question:
Which protocols can you use to connect your company's three LANs?  (Choose three.)

Explanation:
TCP/IP
IPX
AppleTalk

You need routable protocols for this. TCP/IP, IPX, and AppleTalk are the ones listed that are routable.

PPP is a serial line protocol and is not routable. 
POP3 is a protocol for downloading e-mail from server to client and is not routable.
NetBEUI is not routable


Question:
Which use UDP as their transport protocol? (Choose two.)

Explanation:
TFTP
DNS

TFTP(Trivial File Transfer Protocol) and DNS(Domain Name System) use UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
Note: DNS may also use TCP, but under normal circumstance DNS uses UDP. If a different protocol is specified, the client contacts the server using that protocol. If no protocol is specified, the client first tries UDP.


Question:
Which of the following protocols are in TCP/IP suite? (Choose four.)

Explanation:
SMTP, DHCP, HTTP, UDP

SMTP Simple Mail Transport Protocol is used for sending email around the Internet.
DHCP -Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically assign IP addresses for network devices/Hosts
HTTP Hyper Text Transfer Protocol is a TCP/IP protocol used for transferring Web pages around the Internet.
UDP User Datagram protocol is a TCP/IP connectionless protocol 
NetBEUI is a non routable Microsoft protocol.
SAP is a Novell protocol used in name resolution.


Explanation:
TCP/IP

PPTP (Point to Point Tunneling Protocol) requires TCP/IP and PPP before it can work.
With PPTP, you can securely transmit Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) packets over a TCP/IP network.


Question:
Which of the following protocols is not routable?

Explanation:
NetBEUI

NetBEUI is an extremely fast protocol for LANs but lack addressing capability to be routable. Routing of NetBEUI packets must be handled by other protocols.
IP: Internet Protocol is the routable protocol of the TCP/IP suite.
IPX: Internet Packet Exchange is part of Novel's IPX/SPX suite and is routable.
DECnet is routable.


Question:
Which PPP authentication method sends the name and password in simple text over a serial line connection?

Explanation:
PAP

PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) sends the name and password in simple text. 
CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) uses encryption to protect the name and password.


Question:
Which protocols would allow Windows 2000 machines to communicate? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation:
NetBEUI 
TCP/IP
IPX/SPX  

With Windows NT 3.51, 4.0 and Windows 2000, TCP/IP became the default choice during installation, although the administrator can still choose NetBEUI or even an IPX-compatible protocol (NWLink), if necessary.


Question:
What is the proprietary network operating system of Macintosh computers?

Explanation:
AppleTalk

AppleTalk is the default network operating system of Macintosh computers included with every Mac OS. Many other operating systems can also communicate via AppleTalk, but it is not the default protocol for these systems. 

The Apple File Protocol (AFP) is used to provide the sharing capabilities across the network.


Explanation:
NetBEUI 

NetBEUI (NetBIOS Enhanced User Interface) is a proprietary Microsoft protocol. It has virtually no overhead, and was used in all of Microsoft's early networking products such as Windows for Workgroups, LAN Manager, etc.

Interestingly, OS/2 (no it is not dead!) used NetBEUI as its native protocol.


Question:
Which two application protocols does Network Attached Storage (NAS) use?

Explanation:
NFS
SMB 

With protocols like TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol), IPX, SMB (Server Message Block), NFS (Network File System), HTTP (Hyper Text Transport Protocol) network attached storage devices can communicate with the LAN.

The key here is "network attached" not backbone protocols for a WAN like Frame Relay or ATM. HDLC is a point-to-point protocol used on leased lines.


Question:
You have connected an Apple workstation to a Windows NT4 Server. The workstation is unable to connect to the server but it can connect to the internet.

SelectionC:
The server is not running Services for Macintosh.

Explanation:
Server not running Services for Macintosh. 

The second best choice would be "The server not running AppleTalk". However, when you set up Services for Macintosh on a computer running Windows NT Server, the AppleTalk Protocol, File Server for Macintosh and the Print Server for Macintosh are all automatically enabled.


Question:
What layer of the OSI model does a bridge operate in?

Explanation:
Data Link 

Bridges operate in the Data Link layer and are used to segment the LAN. While Bridges create multiple "collision" domains, all bridged segments are still on the same 'broadcast" domain. The reason being that they pass broadcast packets to other connected domains. 
Bridges do NOT help to reduce broadcast storms.


Question:
A router operates on the network layer and is capable of selecting multiple data paths.

Explanation:
True

Routers are intelligent devices operating at the Network layer. Routers evaluate the destination address of the packet and forward it to the next node along the way to its destination.


Question:
What layer of the OSI model ensures packets are delivered error free, in sequence and without lost or missing packets?

Explanation:
Transport 

The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data. A key word here is "sequenced". The Transport layer can re-sequence out of order packets.
The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer,
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.


Question:
Which of the following operate at the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose all that apply.)

Explanation:
Bridge
Brouter
Switch

Brouters, being a hybrid between bridges and routers, operate at both the network and data link level.


Question:
How many layers are in the TCP/IP protocol stack?

Explanation:
4

TCP/IP, has four layers of protocols. Each layer works independently of the other layers and passes the data to either the layer above it or the layer below it. 
1. NETWORK ACCESS LAYER:  deals with the physical network. It has a protocol for each physical network standard. Functions of this level include encapsulating IP Datagrams into the frames.
2. INTERNET LAYER: defines the Internet addressing scheme and learning whether or not to pass it up or pass it on.  This is where IP resides. It is connectionless and routable. 
3. HOST-TO-HOST TRANSPORT LAYER:  provides reliable Connection-oriented data delivery and error checking. This is where TCP resides. 
4. APPLICATION LAYER: contains application protocols such as TELNET, FTP, HTTP and SMTP.


Question:
At which layer of the OSI model does the router operate?

Explanation:
Network

Remember that routing is done at the network layer. That is why we associate IP and IPX at this layer. And routers make decisions based on logical network addresses.


Question:
Which operates at both the Application and Transport layers?

Explanation:
Gateway

Gateways are used to connect networks that have different protocols. For instance, if your LAN uses only NetBEUI, you would need a gateway  in order to communicate over the Internet, which uses TCP/IP. 

Since gateways effectively "translate" protocols, they work at all layers of the OSI model. However, for the purposes of the Network+ exam, remember they work at the upper layers, (Transport layer and above).


Question:
Which one of the following OSI layers determines which route data packets should take by evaluating network conditions and priority of service?

Explanation:
NETWORK

The Network layer is responsible for routing the data packets to their correct destination by the best available path. Routers operate at the Network layer,
The Transport layer provides for reliable and properly sequenced transfer of data.
The Data Link layer is responsible for packaging data into frames and providing an error free "Link" between computers. Bridges operate at the data Link layer.
The Session layer handles the opening, and closing of a session between computers.


Question:
Which device operates on both the Network and the Data Link Layer of the OSI model?

Explanation:
Brouter 

Brouters operate at both the Data Link and Network layers.
Brouters are an excellent solution in situations where both routable and nonroutable protocols are used together. Like a Bridge, Brouters pass nonroutable protocols such as NetBEUI and like a Router, they can route routable protocols such as TCP/IP to the correct destination.


Question:
E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet work at which OSI layer?

Explanation:
Application 

E-mail, FTP services, and Telnet all operate at the Application layer


Question:
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for placing the signal on the cable?

Explanation:
Physical 

The cable always refers to the Physical layer.


Question:
On what OSI layer do computers "talk" to each other?

Explanation:
Session

The Session layer is responsible for setting up a communication "session" between two computers.


Question:
Which of the following devices works at the Application layer of the OSI model ?

Explanation:
Gateway  

A Gateway works at the Application layer and other upper layers of the OSI model.
A Bridge operates at the Data Link layer.
A Repeater operates at the Physical layer.
A Brouter operates at both the Network and Data Link layers of the OSI model.


Explanation:
Transport

Transport layers include TCP and UDP. 
UDP is the connection-less Transport layer protocol.


Question:
Select two protocols that reside at the Transport layer of the OSI model.

Explanation:
TCP, UDP

IP - Network layer
SNMP -  Application layer
HTTP - Application layer
Telnet - Application


Question:
Which relates to the Logical Link Control of the Data Link layer?

Explanation:
802.2

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
What IEEE specification does CSMA/CD map to?

Explanation:
802.3

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
Which IEEE 802 specification specifies a logical ring and a physical star topology with a token passing media access method?

Explanation:
802.5 (Token Ring)

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
Which IEEE Standard uses Token-Passing in a Bus Topology?

Explanation:
802.4 (Token Bus)

Token Bus is a networking protocol which regulates access to a bus topology network as though it were a token ring. Nodes can be configured to pass the token in any order, regardless of their physical position on the bus. 

802.5 = Token Ring
802.3 = CSMA/CD (Ethernet)
802.1 = Internetworking and Management


Question:
How many devices can communicate simultaneously within a Token-ring LAN?

SelectionC:
As many devices as the administrator defines within the NOS

SelectionD:
Between 1 and 5 if the ring speed is 16 Mbps

Explanation:
One
 
There is only one token on a Token Ring LAN and no computer can communicate without it. Therefore only one computer may communicate at a time, even if there were multiple MAUs.


Question:
On which network architecture is CSMA/CD used?

Explanation:
ETHERNET

Ethernet uses CSMA/CD as its method of line access. That is why we say that it maps to IEEE specification 803.2, which describes CSMA/CD.


Question:
The IEEE standard that describes integrated voice and data networks is called?

Explanation:
802.9

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
What are the most commonly used network technologies in use today? (Choose three.)

Explanation:
802.2, 802.3, 802.5

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
What is the token in a Token Ring network generated by?


Question:
What IEEE 802 standard would map to this network?

Explanation:
802.5

The Ring In and Ring Out ports, along with the double wires going to each workstation indicate this is a Token Ring network, which is the 802.5 IEEE standard.

802.3 = CSMA/CD (Ethernet)
802.2 = Logical Link Control
802.12 = 100 VG AnyLAN


Question:
What IEEE specification is used to describe 100VG - ANY LAN?

Explanation:
802.12

100VG AnyLAN is based on the IEEE 802.12 standard for transmitting 802.3 Ethernet and 802.5 Token Ring frame information at 100 megabits per second. Because of the success of Fast Ethernet this technology has a rough time in the marketplace. Arguably, this promising technology is, as of this writing, dead. 

Although Fast Ethernet is a 100 Mb technology it is described in an extension to the 802.3 specification called 802.3u.


Question:
Which network architecture maps to IEEE 802.5?

Explanation:
Token Ring

IEEE 802 Definitions
802.2 	LOGICAL LINK CONTROL
802.3 	CSMA/CD (ETHERNET)
802.4 	TOKEN BUS
802.5 	TOKEN RING
802.6 	METROPOLITAN AREA NETWORK (MAN)
802.7 	BROADBAND COMMUNICATION
802.8 	FIBER OPTIC COMMUNICATION
802.10 	NETWORK SECURITY
802.11 	WIRELESS NETWORKS
802.12 	DEMAND PRIORITY ACCESS METHOD FOR 100 MB OPERATION


Question:
How many broadcast domains are in the picture below?

Explanation:
Four

Switches pass broadcasts to all ports but a virtual LAN (VLAN) is a broadcast domain created by one or more switches. The VLAN is created via configuration in the switch. With VLANs, a single switch can assign some ports in one broadcast domain, and other ports in another broadcast domain. In this diagram there are four VLANs, therefore there are four broadcast domains.


Question:
Which two benefits does starting Samba on a UNIX/Linux server provide?

Explanation:
File server access
Print server access

File server access and print server access are correct. Samba is a suite of Unix applications that speak the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol. Many operating systems, including Windows and OS/2, use SMB to perform client-server networking. By supporting this protocol, Samba allows Unix servers to get in on the action, communicating with the same networking protocol as Microsoft Windows products.


Question:
Name two applications that are connection oriented.

Explanation:
FTP 
Telnet

FTP and Telnet both use TCP as a Transport layer mechanism. This makes them connection-oriented.
PING uses ICMP, which operates under IP, which is not connection-oriented.
SNMP uses UDP which means it is not connection-oriented.


Question:
Which TCP/IP protocol uses a logical address for a host?

Explanation:
IP

IP (Internet Protocol) uses the IP address to identify the Host. It is termed a "logical address" because it is defined with software.

IPX (Internet Packet Exchange) is the only other choice that applies, but instead of a logical address, IPX uses the NIC card's hardware, or MAC address preceded by the network name.


Question:
On a network that uses the TCP/IP protocol suite, each device that has a logical IP address is known as a  _________?

Explanation:
HOST

This may seem a little odd since the term "Host" may also refer to a mainframe computer. For the purposes of the Network+ exam, Host is the correct answer.


Explanation:
Connectionless

User Datagram Protocol is a fast, efficient connectionless and unreliable protocol.


Question:
Which PPP authentication method provides password encryption over a serial line connection?

Explanation:
CHAP

CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) uses encryption to protect the name and password, while PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) sends the name and password in plain text.


Question:
PPP supports authentication. (PAP and CHAP)

Explanation:
True

PAP (Protocol Password Authentication) and CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) are used by PPP (Point to Point Protocol)for authentication methods.


Question:
You are required to set up a link between your field office and headquarters.

Required result: Connect the two locations for file sharing over Internet. 
Optional results: Provide a secure connection.
Optional result two: Provide a permanent connection.

Proposed solution: Enable PPTP on the headquarters web server, use an ISP from the  field office to connect to the Internet and use PPTP to connect to headquarters. Which results have you achieved?

SelectionB:
Meets required result and one optional result.

SelectionC:
Meets required result and both optional results.

Explanation:
Meets required result and one optional result.

PPTP is used to provide a Virtual Private Network (VPN) through an Internet connection, using an existing PPP session. The data passing through a PPTP session is encrypted to provide a secure transfer of data. The PPTP session only lasts as long as the PPP session through which it  is tunneled. This means it is not permanent.


